Celibate marriage of Church Fathers

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Hello! I would like to know if St.Hilary of Poitiers, St.Gregory of Nyssa and St.Paulinus of Nola were living with their wifes into a celibate marriage (spiritual, Josephite, sexless marriage) during their service as a bishop? I found two types of biographies, one of them tell that they were living separated, but on the contrary other sources tell that they was living together like a brother and a sister into a celibate marriage. Thank you!
 
Just a note, there is no such thing as a “celibate” marriage, celibacy implies being unmarried. They were continent.

I don’t know any sources but St. Gregory of Nyssa I am fairly certain lived with his wife continently.
 
Just a note, there is no such thing as a “celibate” marriage, celibacy implies being unmarried. They were continent.

I don’t know any sources but St. Gregory of Nyssa I am fairly certain lived with his wife continently.
Marcus, I want to score under that in the tradition of Church Father THERE IS a “celibacy marriage” and it was very common between II and IV century.Read letters of St.Jerome, for example Epistula LXVI, LXXI, LXXV, LXXIX. Read also Epistula XIV of St.Paulinus of Nola. Friends of St.Paulinus, Titia and Julian were living in celibacy marriage. Live like angels was the idea of celibacy in marriage. For St.Augustine Virgin Mary and Joseph were living in celibacy marriage. Blessed Louis and Zélie Martin was living in celibacy marriage formore that a year before they decided to have a child. Blessed Maria Beltrame and Luigi Quattrocchi was living in celibacy marriage since forty years old. St.Henry II and St.Cunigunde of Luxemburg wereliving in celibacy marriage. Blessed Kinga of Poland and Boleslaw V were living in celibacy marriage. Eastern Orthodox Church encourage spouses to live in celibacy circa fourty years old, because sacramental nature of marriage step by step brings human love to higher state, a state of the angels.
 
No, “celibacy” means the state of being unmarried. You cannot have a celibate marriage. They had a continent marriage, which means they did not have sex.
 
No, “celibacy” means the state of being unmarried. You cannot have a celibate marriage. They had a continent marriage, which means they did not have sex.
In 1st century Latin “caelebus” didn’t mean “unmarried” as a state of life but virginity, having no sex. Your understanding of “celibacy” term become from Medieval movement, not from Patristic period.
 
Can we please refrain from the arguing about semantics? Tit-for-tat?
While I have no answer for the stated question in the OP, I AM interested in an answer, but not interested in reading the arguments around how to ask the question.
Thank you.
 
No, “celibacy” means the state of being unmarried. You cannot have a celibate marriage. They had a continent marriage, which means they did not have sex.
I thought a marriage had to be consummated within a year to be valid.

I have read, “Within the Catholic Church, a marriage that has not yet been consummated, regardless of the reason for non-consummation, can be dissolved by the Pope. Additionally, an inability or an intentional refusal to consummate the marriage is probable grounds for an annulment.”

If this is accurate, how does one have a continent marriage. Obviously I am missing something. Can you fill in the holes for me?

Thanks!
 
I thought a marriage had to be consummated within a year to be valid. Obviously this assumption is incorrect, so can someone tell me maybe where I would have come up with that and what is wrong with that statement?

Thanks!
Consummation must occur for the marriage to be sacramentally valid, but remember that Mary and Joseph were married, too. Would it then be considered a “natural” marriage, if consummation had not occurred?
 
Consummation must occur for the marriage to be sacramentaly valid, but remember that Mary and Joseph were married, too. Would it then be considered a “natural” marriage, if consummation had not occurred?
This is why I am obviously missing something. I am just wondering if someone can clarify the actual rule to me and why there are then exceptions to this.
 
Can we please refrain from the arguing about semantics? Tit-for-tat?
While I have no answer for the stated question in the OP, I AM interested in an answer, but not interested in reading the arguments around how to ask the question.
Thank you.
I found the answer four days ago. St. Paulinus of Nola was living in marriage with St. Therasia of Nola. After death of their only child they decided to live together in continental marriage. As a couple they joined the monastery in Nola. St. Paulinus wrote about the decision in Epistula XLIV to Ager. In my opinion it is the most wonderful letter about love between man and woman in Western patristic period. St.Jerome wrote about profits of continental marriage in the letters I have mentioned. Probably St.Gregory of Nyssa was married. When he became a bishop he was living with his wife, blessed Theosebia in continental marriage. We know about that from letter CXCVII of Gregory of Nazianzen but some historicians suppose that Theosebia was sister of St.Gregory of Nissa because in letter CXCVII she is called " sister of Gregory and Basil". I think it is untrue because in patristic literary works wife who was living continental is often called a “sister”. I think the same story is in case of St.Hilary, because he was living with his wife when he became a bishop.

sorry for my poor English
 
This is why I am obviously missing something. I am just wondering if someone can clarify the actual rule to me and why there are then exceptions to this.
Read in adhortation of John Paul II, “Redemptoris custos”:

“*In the Liturgy, Mary is celebrated as united to Joseph, the just man, by a bond of marital and virginal love …]. Joseph did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took his wife” into his home (Mt 1:24); what was conceived in Mary was “of the Holy Spirit.” From expressions such as these are we not to suppose that his love as a man was also given new birth by the Holy Spirit? Are we not to think that the love of God which has been poured forth into the human heart through the Holy Spirit (cf. Rm 5:5) molds every human love to perfection? This love of God also molds-in a completely unique way-the love of husband and wife, deepening within it everything of human worth and beauty, everything that bespeaks an exclusive gift of self, a covenant between persons, and an authentic communion according to the model of the Blessed Trinity.

“Joseph. . .took his wife; but he knew her not, until she had borne a son” (Mt 1:24-25). These words indicate another kind of closeness in marriage. The deep spiritual closeness arising from marital union and the interpersonal contact between man and woman have their definitive origin in the Spirit, the Giver of Life (cf. Jn 6:63). Joseph, in obedience to the Spirit, found in the Spirit the source of love, the conjugal love which he experienced as a man. And this love proved to be greater than this “just man” could ever have expected within the limits of his human heart."*
 
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