CaptFun responds in RED
He also told them not to do as they do.
Then Jesus spoke to the crowds and to his disciples, saying, “The scribes and the Pharisees have taken their seat on the chair of Moses. Therefore, do and observe all things whatsoever they tell you, but do not follow their example. For they preach but they do not practice. (Matthew 23:1-3)
Their authority was legitimate, given by God and so their instruction was not to be disregarded. The word “Hypocrite” in Greek means literally “Actor.” They were hypocrites.
Their personal behavior was not to be emulated.
Nothing has changed today. We are to follow the teaching of the Church when it comes from legitimate authority, but not to emulae corrupt practices when they are apparent.
-Tim-
Good answer. In formal teaching “from the Chair of Moses” the people were to listen to and obey their authority (Jesus was not being a rebellious Jew - He was fulfilling his office as the Son of Man by being obedient to human authority where it was legitimate).
Regarding the “Chair of Moses” (not elsewhere mentioned in scriptures OT or NT) and the Church having authority even unto “infallibility” as far as being able to teach truly in important matters – another incident in Jesus’ life comes to mind.
Matthew 19:3 Some Pharisees approached him, and tested him, saying, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any cause whatever?”
4 He said in reply, "Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female’
5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’?
6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate."
7 They said to him, "Then why did** Moses command**
that the man give the woman a bill of divorce and dismiss (her)?"
8 He said to them, "Because of the hardness of your hearts
Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but*** from the beginning it was not so.
9 I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."
In this episode Moses’ teaching is invoked by the Pharisees to “prove” the legitimacy of divorce (rather like Moses speaking from “his chair”). The seem to have guilded the lily by adding the word “commanded”.
Jesus, who knew Moses and the situation leaves that legality in place but teaches the people (not excluding the Pharisees) that what was allowed was not according to the promptings of God but an expedience Moses used, possibly to keep law and order.
Pondering infallibility … it would seem that the Pope’s have a similar authority to Moses’.
A Church member who follows a papal teaching … or does not exceed what is allowed …
has functioned within the realm of obedience.
Infallibility in that sense might not mean “perfect teaching” or “complete teaching” or “the highest possible ideals on the subject can be found here”. It means that it is a teaching that one can follow and know they are not committing sin.*
** However a Jewish person of that time who followed the teachings from the chair of Moses and availed himself of the liberal divorce laws allowed … WOULD be sinning if his conscience told him it was wrong to do so. Jesus was acting as a conscience here and
enlightened the crowd as to a holier way.
*
Even the apostles seemed to have been more comfortable with the liberal divorce laws (from the Chair of Moses?). Jesus did not directly call for these laws to change … but he was in the process of founding “His Church” and simultaneously teaching IT (and the apostles) what God desired regarding marriage. Soon He would commission them to “teach the nations” with powers at
LEAST equal to teaching from the chair of Moses.
Matt 19:10 [His] disciples said to him, “If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
11 He answered, "Not all can accept [this] word, but only those to whom that is granted.
12 Some are incapable of marriage because they were born so; some, because they were made so by others; some, because they have renounced marriage 9 for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Whoever can accept this ought to accept it."
It’s worth noting that the Church never did allow divorce like what was allowed in first century Judea - but followed Christ’s teaching (difficult though they initially found it).
Easy divorce might have kept England Catholic I suppose - but though the Church heard the case of Henry VIII (which did involve some unique circumstances regarding the marriage) it did not rule in his favor. Even when he threatened it (not idle threats either).
Catherine was not guilty of anything, and her not being able to give Henry a son was not considered good enough proof to show that maybe God didn’t join them together.
I included Jesus’ teaching about celibacy dedicated “for the sake of the kingdom” here, as it is a counsel of the Church that became later a requirement for entering the priesthood. After all, it is Christ’s prriesthood one is being deputized unto - and He Himself was such a celibate man. A servant is not greater than his Master.
What was once allowed was changed. The Church has been given “keys” by Jesus. And keys change things when they are used … be it opening or locking things.
Moses’ ruling on divorce was a change. And lawful. It was an imperfect change though.
And when we consider “Moses’ Chair” and Peter’s … we are grateful for the guidance, but of course follow whatever rulings are given in the Holy Spirit. And do not pit one against the other. Nor surmise that the Holy Spirit always agrees with our licentious whims.
