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TradyDaddy
Guest
Is it OK for anyone to change the words of the Gospel during any part of the Mass?
Is it OK for anyone to change the words of the Gospel during any part of the Mass?
Is this done during Mass, or at some other time?. . .I’ve dramatised the Gospel before with youth groups and such . . .
In place if the Gospel, yes. I’ve done it at a mass where Cardinal Hume presided and he said he really enjoyed it so no thin ice as far as I’m aware!Is this done during Mass, or at some other time?
If it’s during Mass, at what point in the liturgy does this happen?
Is it in place of the Gospel reading?
Is it after the reading of the Gospel before the homily?
Is it done in place of the homily?
It seems to me there could be some thin ice here.
What if the translation, approved or not, has inarguably changed the meaning of a particular text especially in instances where Christs own words are involved?We are supposed to use a translation that is approved for use at mass for the proclamation of the gospel reading. In the US, only the translation in the current lectionary is approved for use as the gospel reading.
In the homily etc. a paraphrase would be acceptable.
There are obviously specifics involved here TradyDaddy, why don’t you share the story with us?What if the translation, approved or not, has inarguably changed the meaning of a particular text especially in instances where Christs own words are involved?
Doesn’t matter, it is still a liturgical abuse to use an unapproved translation. How grave an abuse, I can’t say, but when the most recent US lectionary was promulgated, it expressly stipulated that it was to be used exclusively. Formerly, several translations were approved for use, but again that changed with the promulgation of the current US lectionary.What if the translation, approved or not, has inarguably changed the meaning of a particular text especially in instances where Christs own words are involved?
Can you please be more specific. An example will help. These “what if scenarios” may not happen because of the power of the Holy Spirit (e.g. “What if the Churh will loose to the devil”).Ok, then let us assume we are talking about a fully approved translation. If this fully approved translation has inarguably changed the words of Jesus Christ to mean something different…then what say you?
True Daddy:Ok, lets take a simple bible text…
St. Matthew, Chaper 26, Verse 28 and St. Mark, Chapter 14, Verse 24 … could someone please tell me who had the authority to change the words spoken by Christ here?
Is this done during Mass, or at some other time?
If it’s during Mass, at what point in the liturgy does this happen?
Is it in place of the Gospel reading?
Is it after the reading of the Gospel before the homily?
Is it done in place of the homily?
It seems to me there could be some thin ice here.
MichaelTrue Daddy:
I know what you’re talking about. You’re talking about the “Words of Institution” in the Ordo Missae 1970. I probably like the change to “for ALL” from “for MANY” as much as you do, but it doesn’t make the Mass itself INVALID.
If this change in words rendered the Mass INVALID, it would mean that the Lord’s promise wasn’t VALID, and that the Lord didn’t keep His word, and please don’t say He kept his word with Lefebre and all of these various people claiming to be Pope who were consecrated by priests.
This Forum is supposed to be on how we relate to the Liturgy and the Sacraments of the Church, not whether the Sacraments are Valid or Invalid because of some obscure theological point that most Catholics can’t even begin to understand.