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Irish_Polock
Guest
The difference being - in the case of St. Augustine -, that the Greeks were a part of our Church. Your analogy has no merit or truth there. St. Thomas, was of course, empathetic of the Eastern Church, but I am unsure of how we “picked up aspects’ of their spirituality via St. Thomas. Please clarify your argument.So has a lot of things in the Catholic Church. Perfect example is Greek philosophy, which we picked up aspects of to further our understanding of the faith. Yet I don’t see people criticizing St. Thomas Aquinas or St. Augustine for being so influenced by sources outside Holy Mother Church.
The bolded sentence speaks for itself. As far as women not speaking in tongues, let look at scripture:They are also allowed by the Church to speak at church. They’re allowed to say the responses.There are a number of liturgical disciplines St. Paul has in Corinthians we we no longer inforce or have changed. The Church has the power to change things like this, since they are not doctrinal or moral issues. This is a rather silly point. Paul explicitly says: do not forbid speaking in tongues.
I find it odd that you push the rest of this chapter and totally discount this particular verse. FYI, the Masses I attend do not have women reading the responses… (again, another forum)As in all the churches of the saints,34 the women should keep silence in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be subordinate, **as even the law says. **35 If there is anything they desire to know, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church. (1Corinthians (RSV) 14)
Let me get this straight, do you believe that anything that a Pope says is authoritative? Even if it is outside his office, or as a personal theologian? If you do in fact believe this way, it could lead to a plethora of contradictions. Surly, you are not asserting this idea, I hope I have mistaken your intent.There are authoritative pronouncements, from the US bishops (several in fact) and what the Pope has said. catholiccharismatic.us/ccc/articles/nonattributed/US_Bishops_001.html and see here iccrs.org/en/index.php/ccr/
Right, both Luther and Calvin got this idea from the Church that they were taught at, If you don’t remember they were both Catholics at some point. Again, your analogy does your argument absolutely no justice.I would say the opposition to the CCR has its roots in the reformation. Luther and Calvin were very “cessassionistic” (they thought the age of miracles was over, and charisms weren’t for that time). They also took away the sacrament of confirmation, since it obviously didn’t look anything like Pentecost and obviously couldn’t be for that day and age.Traditional Protestant thought is very prevalent in the mentality of the opposition to the movement, I think.
Really? The roots of the CCR are not the charismata, they are the actions of several misled Catholics whom embraced protestant theology in the post VII Church.This is a bare assertion, and rather a silly comment.
Opus Dei and any other authentic Order is nothing like the CCR, you are comparing apples to oranges. If a comparision were to be made, I would compare the CCR to movements such as the Joachimites, followers of Joachim of Fiore in the 12th century, the Fraticelli, schismatic Franciscans in the 13th and 14th centuries, and the Molinists (or “Quietists”) in the 17th century.I find it strange that people think the Pope should have spoken infallibly on the subject of an ecclessial movement… of course there were no examples of the movement before it started! There were no examples of Opus Dei before that started. There were no examples of any of the other new ecclesial communities and movements before they started. There were no examples of the Benedictines, Fransiscans, Dominicans, Jesuits, Carmelites, etc. before they started. There has to be a first time for everything!
The reason that it has been ignored - for close to 1500 - years is because that these extraordinary phenomena dwindled considerably and disappeared after the Apostolic Age. The Church had by then achieved a moral universality and was established in such a way that these manifestations were no longer either useful or necessary.Because for many reasons (none of them good), it’s a subject that’s been largely ignored for centuries and that’s why there’s a movement in the first place.
Well, if you are indeed asking me why these abuses happen, I would tell you that the secular trend in which our society has progressed, is the leading cause, then, I would acknowledge that the ambiguities within the second Vatican Council is not too far behind said progression. Then again, according to most Charismatic’s, I have yet to be “baptized in the Holy Spirit”, although, I would say “Amen, it has not yet been tested“.If the Catholic faith is clearly taught (as it is), or a better example if the liturgy is clearly explained (as it is), why are there so many liturgical abuses? If the Real Presence is clearly taught, why is it the majority of at least nominal Catholics don’t believe in it?