Checkmate in 3 moves

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That is just dead wrong. No one in their right mind would dream of postulating, as real, an actual infinity. Even in that little box that is supposed to represent the “set,” numbers do not exist infinitely expressed. They are only expressed as a couple of real numbers and commas, followed by some dots and, perhaps, some ridiculous symbol. There’s absolutely nothing actual about that. (Please don’t even try to redeem this postulation; you’ll be even more embarrassed than you are right now.)

God bless,
jd
Then there should be no problem at all with you showing us an actual infinity. Not three numbers, some dots and a strange hieroglyph in a little box.

God bless,
jd
I have not said anything embarrassing and am unsure as to what that has to do with this thread.

As for actual infinities, I am sure there is a whole lot of work still being done on them to “disprove them” but they are pretty standard in mathematics nowadays. 🤷

I admit that they are strange and may be mostly spoken of in symbols and “dots” but, that doesn’t mean they are imagined. So as for proof of actual infinities in physical world, I’d suggest you check out the tempered tuning on stringed instruments; or better yet, wave your hand. If you move your hand a foot, there are an infinite number of segments that your hand must go through (half a foot to half a foot to half a foot…) to a point where we can’t distinguish the temporal or spatial movement occurring. Yet we can measure it using tools like calculus, and that is an actual infinity.
 
Its not everyone, its just the one’s who are jerks. There’s only been 2 jerks in this thread imo (not counting me).
I think it does count you to.
lol… “clearly evident”. You don’t know anything about me personally.
I don’t have to. Your argument clearly represents somebody who does not abide by the fundamental tenets of Church teaching regarding the nature of God.

If you are playing devils advocate, then you wouldn’t be offended by me pointing that out.
And you are judging me, so fukc you.
I didn’t swear at you, so please don’t swear at me. Unlike you, i will go to the forum administrators and you will be banned. Lets hope for your sake that they do not see this abominable transgression.
“You’re not really a Catholic” now that has gotta be the most pathetic thing I’ve read all day. You should be ashamed of yourself.
Why are you calling me pathetic, when its your arguments that have clearly lead me to making the inference? If you are playing devils advocate then you need to tell us now; because it wouldn’t surprise me if the devil has something to do with it.
Too bad you had to reply before I had time to address your previous post, we’re not even talking about the topic anymore.
You can’t even admit that your ideas about God are not traditional or core teachings of the faith. So what truly fruitful discussion can be had with you?
 
I don’t have to. Your argument clearly represents somebody who does not abide by the fundamental tenets of Church teaching regarding the nature of God.

If you are playing devils advocate, then you wouldn’t be offended by me pointing that out.
I’m not offended by you claiming that, I’m just telling you that you’re wrong. I could make an argument that “gods don’t exist because they’re just figments of the human imagination”, and still be a devout Catholic because making an argument doesn’t necessitate believing the argument.

You should address the arguments, themselves, and stop judging the people who are typing them (shame on you for that). And you need to realize the difference between making an argument and having personal beliefs.
 
That you you see evidence of Thomism in a premise or conclusion, is irrelevant, and it is ridiculous if think that such is a proof that i only reason a particular way because i am a fan of Thomism. I am not a fan of anything school of thought. I am only interested in whats rationally true; i follow logic where it leads. If in the end that makes me a Thomist, then so be it.
There is nothing wrong with following Saint Thomas, I am attempting to show that there are other arguments doing that it doesn’t exhaust other reasonable grounds, like mathematics, which is where there has been conflict with what you presented in your syllogism. [and what I wished to discuss with you from the beginning]
I Did not say otherwise. I was talking about the metaphysical attributes of Gods nature. Study what is meant by metaphysical epistemology and you will understand that it deals with Gods general nature, not particular revelations such as the fact that God is 3 persons in one divine nature. I cannot know that God is 3 persons, but i can rational prove that in general God has self knowing and an intellectual will and therefore personal in that respect. I never said that Christ can be known or everything can be known about God through reason alone; you simply jumped to that conclusion.
Read the quote from the catholic encyclopedia. As a Catholic you cannot simply dismiss the intrinsic relevance that proving the existence of God has for the faith.
And i made it evident that faith refers to things which concern our salvation, such as the Christ (the word of God made flesh).
However the church clearly states that proof of the “existence” of God is logically possible insofar as Gods general metaphysical attributes are concerned.
Which is it? You start by saying "the church clearly states that the proof of the ‘existence’ of God is logically possibly…then in the next part (which I already commented on, you claim that “existence” (as in Saint Anselm’s Ontological Argument) is not good, even though it is logically irrefutable. Or is “A being greater than what can be conceived” not a metaphysical attribute? It is rather apophatic but so is a lot of what we can say by natural light.
This is fallacious and a misrepresentation of what the Church means by knowledge of Gods existence through reason.
That is not what the church intends when they say you can have knowledge of Gods existence. Anselm’s argument simply fails, insofar as knowledge of Gods ontological existence is concerned.
Again if CatSci is correct, then God (A necessary personal creator) does not exist.
No, it’s the perfect representation of what the Church intends; please note that Vatican 1 takes into account the individuals disposition to use that reason. At the bare minimum, God is posited, even by the atheist who rejects Him, because he can be known. Anselm’s argument “a being greater than what can be conceived” is the perfect example of this.

It doesn’t not exhaust the possibilities of what can be known in natural theology but the Church does not require a philosophical degree to participate as a member and so keeps the language rather general and inclusive for this reason. If it were not so, she would not suggest that with time “Man’s faculties make him capable of coming to a knowledge of the existence of a personal God.” and that:
34 The world, and man, attest that they contain within themselves neither their first principle nor their final end, but rather that they participate in Being itself, which alone is without origin or end. Thus, in different ways, man can come to know that there exists a reality which is the first cause and final end of all things, a reality “that everyone calls God”.
I am sorry if that bothers you.

So I am not sure where I am displaying fideism, which has been condemned by at least three councils that I know of, the first two times in the work of two particular individuals and then the Vatican 1 Council which was inundated by both the separation of faith and reason displayed by some Protestants and influencing some; and by some “traditionalists” like Joseph deMaistre, who clung to tradition so tightly that it actually suggested a mistrust in Divine Providence and our God-given faculties.

Which is why the vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/ccatheduc/documents/rc_con_ccatheduc_doc_20110128_dec-rif-filosofia_en.html]Decree on the reform of ecclesiastical studies of philosophy is a good source on this.

I do not display or encourage a blind faith, but with a thick and affirming faith maintain a pursuit informed with reason, and I think you’ve assumed too much in your argument and about me; and I don’t see how saying that is displaying fideism.
 
I’m not offended by you claiming that, I’m just telling you that you’re wrong. I could make an argument that “gods don’t exist because they’re just figments of the human imagination”, and still be a devout Catholic because making an argument doesn’t necessitate believing the argument.

You should address the arguments, themselves, and stop judging the people who are typing them (shame on you for that). And you need to realize the difference between making an argument and having personal beliefs.
Is it your belief that God is not necessary in all rationally possible worlds?
 
Is it your belief that God is not necessary in all rationally possible worlds?
I’m not going to share my personal beliefs with you.

I don’t know what you mean by a “rationally possible world”, but its not that hard to imagine worlds that don’t have a god. I’m pretty sure I’ve seen sci-fi movies about some, do those count as “rationally possible”?
 
There is nothing wrong with following Saint Thomas, I am attempting to show that there are other arguments doing that it doesn’t exhaust other reasonable grounds, like mathematics, which is where there has been conflict with what you presented in your syllogism. [and what I wished to discuss with you from the beginning]
Then why haven’t you presented those other positions and demonstrated why they are just as rational as mine?

There is a difference between pure mathematics and ontologically distinct numbers. Pure mathematics does not have to abide by real absolute distinctions. Also, there is a difference between using an abstraction to infer something about the world, and saying that the abstraction itself is the same thing as the world. It would be meaningless to say that there is a real object that is -zero, because when dealing with the act of somethings reality as the basis of making a distinction, Zero represents nothing, that is to say an absence of a real object or quantity. Time is not a zero with positive and negative numbers extending from each end. You cannot infer the reality of that nature based on real world distinction. In the real world a distinction is made either in terms of a things holistic essential qualities, its quantity, or its actuality. Sets are not real objects with real ontological distinctions, anymore than there is a square triangle in existence. The smallest fraction before zero, is a real distinct quantity, and there is no quantity that can logically transcend all finite quantities. In the real world an infinite and a finite object are distinct things when expressed in the same context.

If you intend to make an objective distinction about the reality of something; you cannot just begin with an abstraction in your head and ignore real world distinction.
Which is it? You start by saying "the church clearly states that the proof of the ‘existence’ of God is logically possibly…then in the next part (which I already commented on, you claim that “existence” (as in Saint Anselm’s Ontological Argument) is not good, even though it is logically irrefutable.
Its not logically irrefutable in so far as it intends to infer the existence of something. Its a tautology in that it does not tell us that God exists in the real world but only that if God was a real thing he would be the greatest being. The argument fails as an inference to somethings existence. That is evidently not what the church is talking about when they say that you can “know” that god exists by the light of human reason. They mean that you can make a rational inference to Gods existence resulting in real objective knowledge of his existence. A tautology is not real objective knowledge in so far as knowing what exists and what does not. I made this fact brutally clear, and i will here nothing more of it.

Is it your intention here to get on peoples nerves, and make straw-men of their arguments? If not, then right now it seems as if you have serious issues with grasping certain concepts, the rules of rational syllogism, and the contextual basis in which these concepts are made.
I am sorry if that bothers you.
The only thing that bothers me is that you don’t really know what you are talking about. It bothers me because your interpretation is self evidently false, and you are refusing to see it because you don’t like the consequences. You are in denial despite being show why you are wrong, and you have given no comparable defense. Please keep it to yourself; you will only succeed in frustrating rational thinkers such as my self and J Danial.

Sorry if that bothers you.
 
I’m not going to share my personal beliefs with you.
Goodbye CatSci.:hammering:, i tried my best to get through to you, but evidently you are not here to listen to anything other than the sound of your own typing.

And ah, don’t bother to get up, i will show my self out.:takethat:
 
Hilbert’s example that I assume you are referring to is from a paper in 1926, which he recanted in light of Kurt Godel’s work released in 1931. Since you’ve quoted me several times on this point, I’ll say more on it in a following response.
ALot:

Actually it is from Hilbert’s 1964 book, entitled, Philosophy of Mathematics, “On the Infinite,” pp 134-151. He apparently forgot about that recantation when writing that book! 😊
We can be assured that there is an actual past as there is an actual future by other means but we most likely do not capture it within our languages.
I concur that there is an “aggregating succession of non-contemporaneous distension,” part of the definition of Time proposed by Fr. Robert Spitzer, in his 2010 book, New Proofs for the Existence of God, Contributions of Contemporary Physics and Philosophy, p. 205 etc., and as far as the Past is concerned, it is real as it can provisionally be. But I do not concur that the future is per se real. Odds are that it will be real, but, as you know, God creates and God annihilates. And we’re here talking about probabilities.

God bless,
jd
 
I have not said anything embarrassing and am unsure as to what that has to do with this thread.

As for actual infinities, I am sure there is a whole lot of work still being done on them to “disprove them” but they are pretty standard in mathematics nowadays. 🤷

I admit that they are strange and may be mostly spoken of in symbols and “dots” but, that doesn’t mean they are imagined. So as for proof of actual infinities in physical world, I’d suggest you check out the tempered tuning on stringed instruments; or better yet, wave your hand. If you move your hand a foot, there are an infinite number of segments that your hand must go through (half a foot to half a foot to half a foot…) to a point where we can’t distinguish the temporal or spatial movement occurring. Yet we can measure it using tools like calculus, and that is an actual infinity.
That, again, is absurd. You talk as though “infinity” is as real as your mom and dad. But, that’s just not so. If it were, then you could tell me what that number is that speciates it. What is the number that is infinity? I’m not interested in seeing some strange 8 lying on its side, nor am I interested in looking at a tiny “box,” drawn on paper, that has as its contents, the numbers, 1,2 and 3, followed by commas, three or four dots and an “n”. That is an imaginary representation of infinity for the purposes of working with imaginary mathematics. That it is assumed to be sufficient for certain math calculations does not have any relevance to Reality. It is a reification, nothing more and nothing less. If it were Real, that little box would not be little. It would engulf everything. There’s no such thing as a Real infinite plane. There’s no such thing as a Real infinite magnitude. A huge finite number is still a finite number. That’s obvious to anyone that can think. (No aspersion-casting intended.)

God bless,
jd
 
as in chess?
hmm…I have a friend who really play chess…I also enjoy this game but not really good in it.
I enjoy reading thread in this forum…Thanks to all.
 
as in chess?
hmm…I have a friend who really play chess…I also enjoy this game but not really good in it.
I enjoy reading thread in this forum…Thanks to all.
Sinner2011:

Welcome to CAF! I used to play chess all the time, but haven’t played in a few years. Work and other distractions took me away from it. Alas!

God bless,
jd
 
Sinner2011:

Welcome to CAF! I used to play chess all the time, but haven’t played in a few years. Work and other distractions took me away from it. Alas!

God bless,
jd
Nice, what level (ELO) did you get up to?
 
No, not when we’re talking about time itself. Time can’t begin to begin, because that would require a point in time where time didn’t exist, and that’s contradictory.
CatSci:

Time begins the moment the very first mobile being begins to move. Cosmologically, that would have been at the very first Planck epoch of the expansion from the singularity. Time per se causes nothing. Things merely are correlative with Time. The Earth makes one revolution around its axis in 24 hours, or 1 day.

Man chose the increments by which we could provide ourselves with information about how many increments transpire for each motion we observe. We settled on seconds, minutes, hours, and days, etc.

That said, Time is not precisely a manifold. In fact, Physics has postulated the conflation of Time with Space (a real, extensive manifold) in order to make Time more manifold. So, they call it Space-Time. In this way, certain equations work to make hypotheticals less hypothetical.

A “manifold” is that which permits a plurality of distinctive things to exist and persist side-by-side, even across great distances. Space is a true manifold. In it are all of its objects, existing and persisting. The age of the entire universe can be measured - as a whole unto itself. But, without Motion, Time would be non-existing. Space-time, as modified, can be thought of as a true, extant manifold. Space could exist without objects although it would be rather irrelevant. Space permits place for objects. Further, it permits distinctiveness between objects, i.e., allows for dis-contiguity, or separation.

Saint Thomas said, “. . . although time is not the same thing as motion, time is never without motion.” - (Summa Theologica, I, q. 10, a. 1) And, “If everything, including ourselves, were absolutely immobile, we would be unaware of the passage of time and hence unaware of time’s reality.” - (Summa contra Gentiles, Bk. I, ch. 55.) As a definition, we have, “Time, then, is a number or measure of motion according to the prior and the posterior.” - (Summa Theologica, I, q. 10, a. 1)
There isn’t even a “before” in which to have the lack of something physical because there is not time in which to have a before.
Don’t you see that this argument only has to do with language? I’m sure you realize that our idioms fail us on certain occasions. But, our inability to render into proper words a notion abstracted from reality, is not an argument against that reality, especially in this case. For example, we have no real conception of “infinity.” We can describe it best negatively. When we try to describe, or define, it positively, we find ourselves with statements that do not help us. So, were it not for the finite, we would have no understanding of “infinity.” Yet, we know what infinity is. (I can tell you that it is much, much larger than that little box containing a mere abbreviated avatar of it!)

(By the way, you didn’t do anything to me. But I found, a long time ago, that the best way to encounter someone on a totally different tone level from me, is to match their level. So, if you come here full of inhospitality, or full of pride, or full of “I’m smarter than you” attitude, I will meet you at that same tone level. Usually, within a few posts, you will notice that we will both raise ourselves into hospitableness. 🙂 )
There is no point in time where there is nothing. At every point in time there is something.
Here is an example of shooting the idea in its head because our language cannot properly depict an epoch prior to that initial moment of motion (expansion). Reality does not depend upon time. Time is simply correlative with reality. It is correlative in the same manner that matter/energy is correlative. Once existing, matter can neither be created nor destroyed, but only its form changes.

When we think about our thinking, we realize that it is more than electric currents scurrying around across neurons in our brains. Even the effects of sensing things is more than neurons scurrying. NDE’s show us that we witness something quite new upon reflection of the experience. But, how is that possible? No matter how complex, all of our thoughts about mundane matters, are dependent on our memories. We create only in a manner of speaking as we don’t really “create.” Real creation requires that there be no primary matter, or secondary matter, existing from which to fashion some nuance. Creation, per se, is an activity that only a true Creator can accomplish. A true Creator makes something to be where there was nothing. The true Creator does not use “nothing,” as though nothingness were something from which to fashion real things.

Therefore, aft of that initial Planck epoch of expansion, there wasn’t anything extant. That is what the Philosopher calls, Nothing.

continued . . .
 
continuation…
Which means it never exists… or it exists nowhere…
While we cannot prove beyond any shadow of a doubt that “nothing” was the state of reality just before that primary Planck moment of movement, we are capable of inferring it. Certain physicists infer the existence of a multiverse on the aft side of initial motion. Why? Because they only perceive causation, and causation requires that something remains in its effect. Thus, the matter and energy in this universe must come from some place. Therefore, it must come from another universe that pre-exists ours. And, since this universe began from a singularity, we’ll call that singularity a port through which “(remaining) matter and energy” can get here.

But, even if we allow for a multiverse, every model of one, seems to prove to us a beginning and a transcendent cause. “All Inflationary and Non-inflationary Cosmologies appear to Require a Beginning and Transcendent Cause.” - Inflationary Cosmology and the String Multiverse, Bruce L. Gordon, Ph.D., from New Proofs for the Existence of God, p. 75-103, 2010.

God bless,
jd
 
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