O
OrbisNonSufficit
Guest
Hello everyone. I have recently read Chieti Document again after some time, and I happened to notice some historical inconsistencies or things that do contradict Latin understanding of Papal Primacy over the history. I am mostly posting this to Traditional Catholicism because I mean to view document in light of history and tradition of Latin Church, as to me it seems very inconsistent with it. I understand document is not infallible and hence can be wrong, I just want to know whether or not I am making wrong assumption that it has some inconsistencies or they can be cleared up. I will not present some quotes along with what I perceive is problematic about them:
“The primacy of the bishop of Rome among the bishops was gradually interpreted as a prerogative that was his because he was successor of Peter, the first of the apostles.(12) This understanding was not adopted in the East, which had a different interpretation of the Scriptures and the Fathers on this point. Our dialogue may return to this matter in the future.”
There were numerous instances where not only did Eastern Christians defend primacy of Rome because it came from Peter (St. Athanasius the Great, St. Cyril of Alexandria, St. John Chrysostom…) and numerous Eastern Christians who interpreted Rome as inerrant (George the Hagiorite, St. Maximus the Confessor, St. Theodore the Studite…).
“Reception by the Church as a whole has always been the ultimate criterion for the ecumenicity of a council.”
“Church as a whole” is very ambiguous term, which is very confusing and basically contradicts itself because those who do not accept council as ecumenical are out of the Church and those who do are inside- hence if I make a council in my living room and declare heresy, and my mom and brother accept it, our father is outside the Church because he did not accept it, everyone is outside the Church because they did not accept it, but me, brother and mom are inside the Church and accepted council- hence whole council is actually ecumenical. How was this accepted historically anyway? Pope St. Gregory the Great clearly states he can render Eastern Councils null and void, historically only Councils adopted by Papacy became Ecumenical even for the East (exception being 8th one) and many Councils were simply not accepted by some other Patriarchs and yet became ecumanical.
“Appeals to the bishop of Rome from the East expressed the communion of the Church, but the bishop of Rome did not exercise canonical authority over the churches of the East.”
Pope Clement had clear authority over Corinthians in his letter. Pope Victor received no appeals when he wanted to excommunicate Eastern Bishops either. Pope St. Gregory the Great said he can render Eastern synods null and void- not based on appeal I suppose.
“The primacy of the bishop of Rome among the bishops was gradually interpreted as a prerogative that was his because he was successor of Peter, the first of the apostles.(12) This understanding was not adopted in the East, which had a different interpretation of the Scriptures and the Fathers on this point. Our dialogue may return to this matter in the future.”
There were numerous instances where not only did Eastern Christians defend primacy of Rome because it came from Peter (St. Athanasius the Great, St. Cyril of Alexandria, St. John Chrysostom…) and numerous Eastern Christians who interpreted Rome as inerrant (George the Hagiorite, St. Maximus the Confessor, St. Theodore the Studite…).
“Reception by the Church as a whole has always been the ultimate criterion for the ecumenicity of a council.”
“Church as a whole” is very ambiguous term, which is very confusing and basically contradicts itself because those who do not accept council as ecumenical are out of the Church and those who do are inside- hence if I make a council in my living room and declare heresy, and my mom and brother accept it, our father is outside the Church because he did not accept it, everyone is outside the Church because they did not accept it, but me, brother and mom are inside the Church and accepted council- hence whole council is actually ecumenical. How was this accepted historically anyway? Pope St. Gregory the Great clearly states he can render Eastern Councils null and void, historically only Councils adopted by Papacy became Ecumenical even for the East (exception being 8th one) and many Councils were simply not accepted by some other Patriarchs and yet became ecumanical.
“Appeals to the bishop of Rome from the East expressed the communion of the Church, but the bishop of Rome did not exercise canonical authority over the churches of the East.”
Pope Clement had clear authority over Corinthians in his letter. Pope Victor received no appeals when he wanted to excommunicate Eastern Bishops either. Pope St. Gregory the Great said he can render Eastern synods null and void- not based on appeal I suppose.