L
LittleFlower2021
Guest
Happy Christmas Season,
In the spirit of recent discussions with my Protestant brethren (denomination Presbyterian/Calvinist) over the nature of the Incarnation during Advent this year, the topic of the Hypostatic Union was discussed—particularly the relationship of Christ’s divinity and his humanity in temporal terms. Moreover, I was wondering if my understanding of said mystery plays into another mystery—namely the Eucharist being a representation of the one sacrifice at Calvary.
A big sticking point my Protestant friends have against the Catholic Church is how the Mass and the Eucharist seem to be yet another sacrifice of Christ on Calvary. I mentioned that the Eucharist is seen as a “re-presentation” (emphasis on the “re-“) of Christ presenting the elements of bread and wine as his true body and blood. It then dawned on my that the Incarnation/Hypostatic Union might help shift this perennial misunderstanding of what goes on during the Mass to my friends.
I attempted to explain that while Christ’s humanity died in temporal space (c. 33AD) and ascended into even 40 days after Easter Sunday, because of the incarnation/Hypostatic Union, his full divinity was not bound to the same temporal constraints the rest of us are bound to. Since the Word Incarnate was existing with the other members of the Trinity outside of time and at “the beginning” (see Genesis and John 1), would it be incorrect to say that if God the Son exists before time and at the end of time simultaneously, that he is also still existing at this moment on the cross at Calvary as an “eternal sacrifice” for us? If so, would that help explain how Christ can continue to be “re-presented” in the Eucharist by the Priest on the altar since that same divinity—existing outside our understanding of linear time—merely has its substance now infused behind on the appearances the bread and wine? Would that explain how the Mass is the “same sacrifice” at Calvary?
Disclaimer: I apologize in advance if my above questions were confusing or poorly worded. I am but a humble (or at least striving to be) Catholic who tries to read as much as I can without any formal theological degrees. I seek the truth at all times. The more wade out into the waters of Catholic theology, the more I realize just how deep the waters really go. In that same vein, please forgive any errs in thought process and pray for me as I continue to learn.
In the spirit of recent discussions with my Protestant brethren (denomination Presbyterian/Calvinist) over the nature of the Incarnation during Advent this year, the topic of the Hypostatic Union was discussed—particularly the relationship of Christ’s divinity and his humanity in temporal terms. Moreover, I was wondering if my understanding of said mystery plays into another mystery—namely the Eucharist being a representation of the one sacrifice at Calvary.
A big sticking point my Protestant friends have against the Catholic Church is how the Mass and the Eucharist seem to be yet another sacrifice of Christ on Calvary. I mentioned that the Eucharist is seen as a “re-presentation” (emphasis on the “re-“) of Christ presenting the elements of bread and wine as his true body and blood. It then dawned on my that the Incarnation/Hypostatic Union might help shift this perennial misunderstanding of what goes on during the Mass to my friends.
I attempted to explain that while Christ’s humanity died in temporal space (c. 33AD) and ascended into even 40 days after Easter Sunday, because of the incarnation/Hypostatic Union, his full divinity was not bound to the same temporal constraints the rest of us are bound to. Since the Word Incarnate was existing with the other members of the Trinity outside of time and at “the beginning” (see Genesis and John 1), would it be incorrect to say that if God the Son exists before time and at the end of time simultaneously, that he is also still existing at this moment on the cross at Calvary as an “eternal sacrifice” for us? If so, would that help explain how Christ can continue to be “re-presented” in the Eucharist by the Priest on the altar since that same divinity—existing outside our understanding of linear time—merely has its substance now infused behind on the appearances the bread and wine? Would that explain how the Mass is the “same sacrifice” at Calvary?
Disclaimer: I apologize in advance if my above questions were confusing or poorly worded. I am but a humble (or at least striving to be) Catholic who tries to read as much as I can without any formal theological degrees. I seek the truth at all times. The more wade out into the waters of Catholic theology, the more I realize just how deep the waters really go. In that same vein, please forgive any errs in thought process and pray for me as I continue to learn.