L
Lea101
Guest
This isn’t a thread asking for ‘why’ Paul/Peter/etc said that women must submit to their husbands.
I’m just wondering why we only look Ephesians 5 when we talk about the topic. Other verses in the Bible that talk about the matter do not mention the christ/church imagery, but simply state that men shouldn’t be harsh with them. Is there really anything more than that?
I’m starting to think that we just use that because it’s the least ‘problematic’ passage as we can use the Christ/Church imagery to explain away possible sexism. If the imagery is that important in a marriage, wouldn’t it be mentioned in those verses as well? I’m obviously not saying that it’s not important at all (because if it wasn’t, it wouldn’t be written), but I’m curious as to why other similar verses basically describe a basic patriarchy that does not go deeper than a “don’t be abusive” message, unlike Eph 5.
It’s interesting how Catholics/Christians in general will discuss that passage to defend the faith, when in my opinion, the other verses seem more ‘sexist’ than what Paul said in ch 5. I would assume more apologetics jumping on those verses but I hardly see any.
Is there an actual explanation why? Or does anyone have their own thoughts on it?
I’m just wondering why we only look Ephesians 5 when we talk about the topic. Other verses in the Bible that talk about the matter do not mention the christ/church imagery, but simply state that men shouldn’t be harsh with them. Is there really anything more than that?
I’m starting to think that we just use that because it’s the least ‘problematic’ passage as we can use the Christ/Church imagery to explain away possible sexism. If the imagery is that important in a marriage, wouldn’t it be mentioned in those verses as well? I’m obviously not saying that it’s not important at all (because if it wasn’t, it wouldn’t be written), but I’m curious as to why other similar verses basically describe a basic patriarchy that does not go deeper than a “don’t be abusive” message, unlike Eph 5.
It’s interesting how Catholics/Christians in general will discuss that passage to defend the faith, when in my opinion, the other verses seem more ‘sexist’ than what Paul said in ch 5. I would assume more apologetics jumping on those verses but I hardly see any.
Is there an actual explanation why? Or does anyone have their own thoughts on it?
Last edited: