guanophore;12476396]It is precisely this idea of supremacy that was “developed” in the West. There is no evidence in the first millenia of the universal, immediate jurisdiction that was later claimed by the Papal office.
I simply meant that Peter would not have believed that he was supreme over any other man. That, however, does not deny the Petrine office which began with Peter, and recognized by those leaders in the east.
No, the Eastern Church has not “changed”. They do not engage in the development of doctrine the way we do in the West. For the other Sees, the Primacy and the Keys never meant what the Latin Patriarch later determined that they meant.
They never engaged in the development of doctrine e.g. the trinity?

The Catholic church was one back then…Yes, they were involved in the development of the Trinity…
Further, decisions about interpreting the meaning of the Once for All divine deposit of faith, in the first millenia, were always made with the participation of the other Sees.

Catholics agree.
That means that the West departed from the practices and beliefs of the other Sees, in order to expand and expound upon the role of the successor of Peter.
It is not fair now, to accuse THEM of departing!
Let’s just say: they separated.

We have all read church history, and I do not see what you are claiming. Let’s just use scripture since quoting ECFs gets us nowhere fast. Scripture is real clear about the church in Matthew vis-a-vis Peter, in Matthew 16.
Statement 1 - “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven.
Statement 2 - and I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.
Statement 3 - I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.”
The exegetical structure of the passage demands that Peter be the rock: Statements 1 and 3 have Peter as their principal subject -agreed? Therefore statement 2 does as well - agreed?
Statements 1 and 3 are blessings on Peter, therefore statement 2 is as well - agreed? The elaborations in statements 1 and 3 develop the meaning of the assertions in those statement, therefore the elaborations in statement 2 develop the meaning of statement 2.
It does not seem logical for any Christian to conclude that Jesus would bless Peter for what the Father had revealed; bless him again after telling him **(you are rock and on this rock I will build my church) **by saying - "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.” And then conclude that Jesus was speaking disparagingly by renaming Simon a little/insignificant pebble (the verse in between those two awesome blessings). Moreover, everyone knew back then, and knows now, that Jesus, as per every Christian, is the Divine Rock and Cornerstone that ineffably holds the Church together, therefore Jesus would not state the obvious. The point here is you really cannot deny Peter as the rock while embracing only Peter’s confession, something the CC claims as well. Your thoughts my friend?