D
dje101
Guest
As a protestant, I’ve heard many people and Pastors say that anytime in the OT when scripture says “the angel of the Lord”, this is possibly Christ.
I was wondering what everyone thought because, if the Catholic Church teaches that the angel was in fact an angel and NOT Christ, then there would be scripture to back up praying to the angels in Gen 48:16-17 where Jacob asks an angel to bless Joseph’s sons.
Thanks everyone for your anticipated response!!!
God Bless!
Now, coming from a Protestant Bible, I don’t know if this “traditional Christian interpretation” means “Protestant interpretation” or simply a real traditional Christian teaching dating back to the early church.Gen 16:7The angel of the LORD. Since the angel of the Lord speaks for God in the first person (v.10) and Hagar is said to name "the Lord who spoke to her: ‘You are the God who sees me’ " (v.13) the angel appears to be both distinguished from the Lord (in that he is called “messenger” - the Hebrew for “angel” means “messenger”) and identified with him. Similar distinction and identification can be found in 19:1, 21; 31:11, 13; Ex 3:2,4; Jdg 2:1-5; 6:11-12, 14; 13:3, 6, 8-1, 13, 15-17, 20-23; Zec 3:1-6; 12:8. Traditional Christian interpretation has held that this “angel” was a preincarnate manifestation of Christ as God’s Messenger-Servant. It may be, however, that, as the Lord’s personal messenger who represented him and bore his credential, the angel could speak on behalf of (and so be identified with) the One who sent him (see especially 19:21; cf. 18:2, 22; 19:2). Whether this “angel” was the second person of the Trinity remains therefore uncertain. NIV Study Bible
I was wondering what everyone thought because, if the Catholic Church teaches that the angel was in fact an angel and NOT Christ, then there would be scripture to back up praying to the angels in Gen 48:16-17 where Jacob asks an angel to bless Joseph’s sons.
Thanks everyone for your anticipated response!!!
God Bless!