LetsObeyChrist:
Can a layman become pope?
The post noted the Pharisees were laymen who had no right to sit in Moses’ Seat.
They usurped authority and context shows them to have been hypocrites also.
Christ’s point is clear, no matter how sinful men are through whom the Word of God comes, rebellion against that word is without excuse.
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The entire teaches we must obey God rather than men:
**Matthew 23:3 **3 All things therefore whatsoever they shall say to you, observe and do: but according to their works do ye not. For they say, and do not.
All things they teach while sitting=all they fetch from God’s Word, that observe and do.
Don’t do according to their rebellion against that word, don’t be like them and teach God’s word only to rebel against it.
**Acts 5:29 **29 But Peter and the apostles answering, said: We ought to obey God rather than men. -Douay Rheims
That is what sola (only) scriptura (scripture) means, only scripture is supreme authority being the Word of God.
I see nothing in the passage stating that the Pharasees were laymen. A Phasrasee may or not be a layman.
Do you have a scriptural authority to show that these particular Pharasees were laymen?
And I see no reason to believe they were teaching solely from scipture.
The passage quoted shows nothing about what the Pharasees were teaching, it just affirms their authority ( All things whatsoever ). The word of God is not neccessarily whatsoever.
(Perhaps Matthew 15 would be useful to the discussion).
If a case is demonstrated where the person teaching is going totally against scripture, there would be a case not to obey that particular teaching. However, there is no carte blanch to avoid obeying authority.
The chair passage does not indicate that the teachings were against scripture in any way. Nor is there anything to say the teachings were even from scripture.
There are way too many assumptions going on.
If a layman, or non-cleric, were to be considered for Pope, he would not REMAIN a layman. He would be ordained Pope, Bishop, Priest (Presbuteros … Heiros ).
One gets the office through ordination to the priesthood.
Can a layman become pope? SURE, by being ordained…
Is there some authoritative reason to believe the Pharisees in question were not priests or ordained prophets? How do we know that there was not an ordination of sorts associated with the chair of Moses?
It is necessary, for this argument of yours to even be consistent, that the source of authority not be a priest (heiros).
How can that be proved? Some Pharisees were known to be priests. If a scribe came from the tribe of Levi he was heriditarily a priest, his ordination being due to God.
And because, in the OT, elders are often ordained while still being referred to as elders, there would be wisdom in showing that the authority did not come from an elder (presbuteros) either.
Acts 5:29 is peculiar, and weak because it comes at a transistion point where two related religions are seperating.
Moses is the lawgiver, and the chair of Moses relates to the law (Torah). Those under the law were under a moral obligation to obey the authority of Moses through the Scribes and Pharisees.
Foreigners were not under a moral obligation to obey, although they may have had reason to fear political reprisals.
After Jesus’ death, Baptism makes one dead to the Torah, and the Torah does not bind people who have died.
The apostles, in Acts 5:29 are clearly post-baptismal, that is shown by Pentecost.
Moses has been replaced by Jesus, the new lawgiver.
And what of the ruling body which succeeded Moses?
Mt: 21 23-24, 33-46.
In particular 21:41-44.
