"Christ" vs. "the anointed one"

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swampboy

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I was looking at the chart from the following site
churchlatin.com/library/books/douayrheims/charts.pdf

regarding the use of the term “Christ” in the original Douay-Rheims OT and how it has changed over time. I can’t read the original languages so I do not know how Christi, Christo, Christus, etc. should be translated, but according to this chart it seems that as time has gone on “Christ” has been removed and replaced with “the anointed one”, even in the Challoner DR to some degree…this seems as if it would have significant implications. The RSV has entirely removed the term Christ from the OT, at least in the instances cited in this chart, and it is used by modern scholars and is considered to be relatively accurate. What is the correct translation and why was it changed? Is this significant from a prophetic standpoint?
 
Today is the Feast Day of St. Jerome, who did know all the original languages and was appointed by the Pope to secure the earliest transcripts that were still available in his day, and from translate into latin. That version of the Bible, as you know is the Vulgate. So however, St. Jerome used the term in the Vulgate is the best one to follow.
 
There can be perhaps various “reasonable” translations…

Certainly the RSV is one of em…

Anointed might be more appropriate in the OT

Christ …Christos …can be for the New Testament. Read Pope Benedict XVI on the name of Christ…

Where we ourselves began to be called “Christians”
 
“Christ” is from the Greek word “Christos” which simply means “anointed one”; it’s the Greek equivalent of “messiah.”

But I’m not sure whether this is your question.
 
Dave_Noonan said:
“Christ” is from the Greek word “Christos” which simply means “anointed one”; it’s the Greek equivalent of “messiah.”

But I’m not sure whether this is your question.
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Mr. Noonan is correct; Mashiakh (Messiah) = Christos = Christ = Anointed One.

To take it further, it would be an interesting study to look up all the occurrences of “Mashiakh” in the OT and see what Greek term the Septuagint translators used. I may do that this evening, if I have the time.

DaveBj
 
DaveBj said:
Mr. Noonan is correct; Mashiakh (Messiah) = Christos = Christ = Anointed One.

To take it further, it would be an interesting study to look up all the occurrences of “Mashiakh” in the OT and see what Greek term the Septuagint translators used. I may do that this evening, if I have the time.

DaveBj
Click to expand...
As far as I know, the Septuagint always uses “christos” for משיח.

But I’d be curious to know whether you find any exceptions.
 
Well, I guess I am just wondering why did Challoner retained “Christ” in some instances in the OT but use “the anointed one” in others, if the use of Christ vs. the anointed one is just a matter of semantics and they mean the same thing—at least the RSV was consistent in replacing it throughout. It just seems as if the term “Christ” has been replaced by “the anointed one” in modern bibles to promote a particular agenda, since all of the older translations used “Christ”.
 
swampboy said:
Well, I guess I am just wondering why did Challoner retained “Christ” in some instances in the OT but use “the anointed one” in others, if the use of Christ vs. the anointed one is just a matter of semantics and they mean the same thing—at least the RSV was consistent in replacing it throughout. It just seems as if the term “Christ” has been replaced by “the anointed one” in modern bibles to promote a particular agenda, since all of the older translations used “Christ”.
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nah…I would not see it as “promoting an agenda”…tis just translation…and it would have been something else in all the hebrew texts…Christos is from the Greek…so would only possibibly appear the Greek versions…

Make sure to read Pope Benedict above as well
 
gee, I thought as a Jewish person tha Christ, Messiah means annoited one. I don’t see a difference.
 
swampboy said:
Well, I guess I am just wondering why did Challoner retained “Christ” in some instances in the OT but use “the anointed one” in others, if the use of Christ vs. the anointed one is just a matter of semantics and they mean the same thing—at least the RSV was consistent in replacing it throughout. It just seems as if the term “Christ” has been replaced by “the anointed one” in modern bibles to promote a particular agenda, since all of the older translations used “Christ”.
Click to expand...
OK, now I understand your question a bit better. Yes, you’re right–the translation should be consistent. I have no idea what the agenda would be, but it’s a very interesting observation.
 
Dave_Noonan said:
As far as I know, the Septuagint always uses “christos” for משיח.

But I’d be curious to know whether you find any exceptions.
Click to expand...
I believe you are right. The Hebrew word shows up 40-something times in the Old Testament. I spot-checked here and there, and “christos” was used consistently. Most of the time it refers to the anointed kings of Israel, once even (Is. 45:1) to “my anointed Cyrus.”

DaveBj
 
DaveBj said:
I believe you are right. The Hebrew word shows up 40-something times in the Old Testament. I spot-checked here and there, and “christos” was used consistently. Most of the time it refers to the anointed kings of Israel, once even (Is. 45:1) to “my anointed Cyrus.”

DaveBj
Click to expand...
Thanks for checking that out!
 
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