Christian who thinks lust outside of marriage is OKAY! GREEK speakers wanted too!

[villaneweva]

If so, could you look at Matt 5 : 28 in the Greek translation? I know a guy who says LUST IS NOT A SIN!

Our version:Matthew 5:28 - But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to **lust **after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

This guy, who took koine greek in college, says

"Since you still don’t seem to understand, perhaps I should put to use the two years I spent in college learning biblical Greek to use.

The word for “woman” used in this verse is “Gunika,” which is the feminine singular accusative form of “Gune,” which means “wife.”

Now, since when was a single woman a “wife?” Not only does the word “Adultry” signal that this verse is talking about a “married couple” the singular accusative word in Greek “Gunaika” is talking about “a married woman” because a singular noun lacking an article is almost always translated as an indirect noun.

There is nothing you can say that will convience me otherwise than that Jesus was saying nothing more than to “NOT BE A HOMEWRECKER.”

“Lust is not a sin unless a man desires a woman who has, in her own mind, commited herself to another man. This is also known as rape if the woman doesn’t want it .”

you can find the text he used here: http://www-users.cs.york.ac.uk/~fis…bin/gnt?id=0105

 

[uncleauberon]

The object of the lesson is still the same no matter how literal you get. Please don’t try to use fancy greek & latin translation to rationalize SIN.

Even if Jesus literally meant that
for a married man to lust after a married women
he would have been committing adultery.

The deeper meaning is retained – to Think it – is to Sin it.

We could still, by intuition, understand –
for an unmarried man to lust after an unmarried woman
he would be committing fornication.

 

[cassman]

Lust is about something physical.

It does not have to do with love. Lust should not be a part of a married couple’s lives, much less an unmarried person’s life.

 

[naprous]

My Liddell and Scott Greek dictionary gives “woman” as the first definition of gune (God I hate transliterated Greek!!!), and “wife” as the second definition.

Now, a caveat. Liddell and Scott is the standard dictionary for Classical Greek, not Koine. I do not have a Koine dictionary. Nor am I a Koine scholar, though I studied a lot of Greek once upon a time.

Naprous

 

[copland]

Liberalism has many faces. And sola scriptura mixed with it creates garbage like that quote you gave us. Even with sola scriptura there are numerus passages that teach about lust and sinfulness.

There really is no changing the minds of such so-called “educated” idiots. They usually know just enough to screw their minds up and also some who can’t think for themselves. The early Church Fathers through the centuries have put ding bats like that to shame.

 

[Pax]

I find your friend’s confidence in his own understanding of Greek to be quite fanciful, and I myself know almost no Greek at all. It takes an incredible amount of nerve to claim that all of the translations of the bible which use the term woman, instead of married woman, can be incorrect. Apparently, the scholars that performed these translations know nothing of the Greek language or they deliberately distorted the text. Somehow, it seems extremely unlikely that he can be right and all of the various scholars that have performed these translations are wrong. I personally have ten different bible translations and they all say “woman.” I have in the past looked into the use of the word “woman” in both the NT and OT, and noticed that the Greek word used in many of these various texts is the same as that of Matt 5:28.

 

[Andreas_Hofer]

While this “scholar” may have chosen to focus on the word for woman, whatever meaning it may have, he doesn’t seem to have noticed that the verb was still “lust.” Now, with lust being a perversion of true physical love in that it removes the emotive participation, reducing the other to an object of physical pleasure, it doesn’t seem to matter who the object is as long as the act is of itself sinful.

P.S. - I also loved the point about fornication.

 

[Paul_W]

villaneweva:

This guy, who took koine greek in college, says

there is nothing that you can say that will convince me otherwise

His mind is made up, don’t confuse him with facts. He likes what he’s doing, and he’ll go to any means to justify it. And he’s not the first to do that.

 

[yinekka]

Yinekka means woman or wife in Greek.

 

[Deacon_Ed]

Okay, I looked at Mt 5:28 and, not to my surprise, the word “lust” is not there! Rather, the Greek reads “…with a view to desire [her]…” (*pros to epithumEsai *where the “E” refers to eta rather than epsilon). This is generally rendered into English as “lust” and the object of that desire is “a woman” (gunaika).

Now, your correspondent is wrong in his assertion that the word means “wife” – it actually means “woman” – but even if it meant wife the singular form refers to the number not the marital status of the woman! Methinks your “scholar” should ask for his money back.
Deacon Ed

 

[Deacon_Ed]

Just a quick addendum to my last post. When I said that gunE did not mean “wife” I was being a little too litteral. In context it can be translated as “wife”, although this is not the most common translation. Scripture does use gunE as “wife” some 92 times.

What I was intending to say was that the first definition given for gunE is “woman.”

Deacon Ed