HI, someone I love does not believe in christmas! I just wanted to see what everyone else could suggest to help respond lovingly to their objections, such as:
the New Testament is not historical.
That is correct. The New Testament writers never intended to give historical accounts, but they wrote historical portraits. There are several collaborating sources outside the Bible that support the events of the New Testament. For example, Josephus, who was not a Christian, a back-slidden Jew, and commissioned by Ceasar, hardly biased in favor of Christians, wrote extensively on bible times, and has been used as a reference by scholars for centuries. Of New Testament extant manuscripts, the earliest go all the way back to around A.D. 130, though most are probably extant to the 3rd and 4th centuries. In any regard, this is remarkable. There is no other writing of antiquity where the copies are so close to the originals. Even standards that we think nothing about, like Plato, the extant copies of Plato are 1200 years after Plato’s death. For the New Testament it is mere decades giving the New Testament an unheard of historical and documentary veracity.
The slaughter of the innocents was likely a made up story.
It’s a recent popular theory. But so what? Why is it important? It’s not an article of faith. What’s hard to believe is how anyone could be so evil as to order the deaths of innocent children, but Herod killed his own sons, that we have outside proof of. But lack of outside collaborating evidence does not mean it didn’t happen, it just means the outside evidence of it is lacking.
Herod died in 4BC so he wasn’t around to order the slaughter of the innocents as the bible states.
The death of Herod is important in its relation to the birth of Christ. The eclipse mentioned by Josephus (Ant., XVII, vi, 4), who also gives the length of Herod’s reign – thirty-seven years from the time he was appointed by the Romans, 40 B. C.; or thirty-four from the death of Antigonus, 37 B. C. (Ant., XVII, viii, 1)-- fixes the death of Herod in the spring of 750 A. U. C., or 4 B. C. Christ was born before Herod’s death (Matthew 2:1), but how long before is uncertain: the possible dates lie between 746 and 750 A. U. C. (see a summary of opinions and reasons in Gigot, “Outlines of N. T. Hist.”, 42, 43).
newadvent.org/cathen/07289c.htm
the hebrew word translated as ‘virgin’ in Is 14:7 should just be translated ‘young woman’ indicating that Mary was not a virgin when she conceived Jesus.
So there are no young Hebrew women who are virgins?

And what is the “unbiased” source of such a translation?
christians mis-interpret the Torah (no Jews looking for their messiah to be born in bethlehem, or announced by a star, or laid in a manger, etc, and appealing to scripture to answer those questions is a biased source)
The Torah is not misinterpreted, what is hidden in it is revealed in the New Testament. The Judaic approach to the scriptures is used as part of interpretation. Herod consulted the Jews, who told him Jesus would be born in Bethlehem. The Jews believed the Messiah would come and restore Israel, how it happened they did not expect, and scripture is not a biased source, it is a primary source for information. Books by angry atheists, revisionists, and bigots are biased, not the Bible.
I guess I’d like to compile an intellectually compelling yet loving response to this type of charge. Looked for a previous thread on this subject unsuccesfully.
Theoaf, I think your friend has been exposed to anti-Christian literature, which is a form of spiritual pornography. They didn’t come up with all this garbage on their own.