Church councils--who goes?

[Erikaspirit16]

I just came back from a conference where someone was discussing councils in Gaul in the 6th century, and someone else bishops in N. Africa at the same period. I asked this question there, but they blew me off.

In early Medieval / late antique times (6th-9th c.), there were a large number of bishops in N. Africa–c. 525 or so. This was a relic of the Roman cities there. But in Gaul, Spain, or Italy, there were far fewer bishops.

So here’s the question: If they had a general church council, who could attend? Were all bishops free to attend and vote simply because they were bishops? If so, certain regions (N. Africa, for example) would have control of the council because of the number of bishops. And regions with far fewer bishops (but perhaps equal or greater Catholic populations) would be at a big disadvantage. Or did the Pope “invite” some bishops and not others? Or did a regional leader of some sort (could be secular) decide who went?

 

[Genesis315]

All bishops have a right and duty to attend and participate in a general council. As a practical matter–due to the location of a council or imperial interference or the changing scope of a council or other reasons–often times bishops would only be from one region or at least not all regions. Different councils have indeed been “dominated” by one region or another over the centuries.

However, the necessity of at least tacit acceptance of the acts of the council by the Roman See supplies for any issues caused by not all bishops attending or one region pushing their agenda on the whole Church.