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FuzzyBunny116
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From Wikipedia:
“In regards to the Catholic Church, the early Church had nothing to say about the slavery that was part of the prevailing culture in Ancient Rome. The most influential of the Catholic Fathers for a thousand years, St. Augustine (354-430), wrote in City of God (19:15) that slavery “is no crime in the eyes of God,” since slavery is part of God’s punishment for sin. Pope Leo I (440-461) forbade admitting slaves (servi) into the clergy “because of the vileness vilitas] of their condition,” which he maintained, would “pollute” the sacred profession. Pope Gregory I (590-604), whose Church owned more than 1,500 square miles of land cultivated by slaves, repeated this prohibition and also (in “Epistles” 7:1) the prohibition of a slave marrying a free Christian.”
Why would they do something like this? I can only shake my head in amazement. How come these men didn’t believe accordingly?
“In regards to the Catholic Church, the early Church had nothing to say about the slavery that was part of the prevailing culture in Ancient Rome. The most influential of the Catholic Fathers for a thousand years, St. Augustine (354-430), wrote in City of God (19:15) that slavery “is no crime in the eyes of God,” since slavery is part of God’s punishment for sin. Pope Leo I (440-461) forbade admitting slaves (servi) into the clergy “because of the vileness vilitas] of their condition,” which he maintained, would “pollute” the sacred profession. Pope Gregory I (590-604), whose Church owned more than 1,500 square miles of land cultivated by slaves, repeated this prohibition and also (in “Epistles” 7:1) the prohibition of a slave marrying a free Christian.”
Why would they do something like this? I can only shake my head in amazement. How come these men didn’t believe accordingly?