Church history from a Protestant perspective

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Ah, glad I asked. Periods do make a difference

to your point,

The 7 Churches of Rev


  1. *]Pergamos
    *]Thyatira
    *]Sardis
    *]Smyrna
    *]Philidelphia
    *]Ephesus
    *]Laodecia

    Since 3 of those Churches John mentions in Rev were also in the list of Churches Ignatius writes to,

    The 6 Churches Ignatius writes toand Ignatius being a direct disciple of John, wrote his letters about the same time John wrote revelations, and Ignatius calls the Churches “Catholic”, then I’d say you’re characterizations, are definitely trying to put a non Catholic spin on Catholic history, which after all is the topic of the thread

    The official name of the Church is the Catholic Church from the first century. Eastern rite Catholics of many different names, are just as Catholic as Roman rite Catholics. It just so happens, today, the Roman rite, is ~98% of the total Catholics in the world. And Ignatius is the one who identifies the Church of Rome out of the others he writes to, as the Church that presides, or said another way, holds the presidency.

    As for Churches in error, over time, that’s why councils are called and popes as well get involved directly in correcting errors.

  1. Hi Steve,

    Not sure ignatius says Roman church has presidency over all other churches. Depends on who translates.

    " which also presides in the place of the report of the Romans,… and which presides over love,"…short version

    “the Church which presides in the place of the region of the Romans,…and which presides over love”…long version (Roberts-Donaldson)

    “even unto her that hath the presidency in the country of the region of the Romans,…and having the presidency
    of love,” (Lightfoot translation)

    He does not mention any bishops in Rome , like he does in his other cities , much less any presiding head bishop/pope.

    If one insists on primacy here, then it is not of office but of Honor again(Peter and Paul being there and head of the western world etc…)…a primacy of “love”’ even.

    And yes he calls it the "Universal Church’’ or the “Catholic Church”. Not sure how widespread the adjective was but certainly it is the first time it is used…And many others consider themselves to be “Catholic” (the Orthodox and scome P’s), and we would indeed be universal still if the western church had not adopted some not so "orthodox’’ positions as her history unfolded (at least that is how P’s and O’s see it).

    Blesings
 
Hi Steve,

Not sure ignatius says Roman church has presidency over all other churches. Depends on who translates.

" which also presides in the place of the report of the Romans,… and which presides over love,"…short version

“the Church which presides in the place of the region of the Romans,…and which presides over love”…long version (Roberts-Donaldson)

“even unto her that hath the presidency in the country of the region of the Romans,…and having the presidency
of love,” (Lightfoot translation)

He does not mention any bishops in Rome , like he does in his other cities , much less any presiding head bishop/pope.

If one insists on primacy here, then it is not of office but of Honor again(Peter and Paul being there and head of the western world etc…)…a primacy of “love”’ even.

And yes he calls it the "Universal Church’’ or the “Catholic Church”. Not sure how widespread the adjective was but certainly it is the first time it is used…And many others consider themselves to be “Catholic” (the Orthodox and scome P’s), and we would indeed be universal still if the western church had not adopted some not so "orthodox’’ positions as her history unfolded (at least that is how P’s and O’s see it).

Blesings
Hi Ben.

Ignatius records the term Catholic for the first time.

Do you think it’s possible that he got it from somewhere?
 
Hi LA
For some strange reason I watched it. This guy would get embarrassed by Dr. Sungensis or Staples or whoever.
I have seen many of Sungenis’s debates and things. After I googled his view on Geocentrism I am sorry, but I can’t take anything he says seriously. And also the information regarding his PhD?
Hi Ben, thought I would cobble these together since you mentioned IC /Assumption in both.

There was no scriptural precedent to make the ruling on circumcision (Acts 15). So they hold a council and use the authority given to them by the Lord. (Matt 16/18) The Lord knew the circumcision issue was coming. So before he ascended he very easily could have given them the answer. But instead he let’s the Church work it out.

So that was the template given. Why would this change all of sudden around 1517 AD?



I do often wonder if Luther pondered this same question during his break. Not a hint of prophesy about a coming reformation. What we do find is the Lord making promises to her to keep her steering in the right direction.
I have often seen Catholics refer to the council in Acts. If we put the argument of the leader there aside, I have another question. How would you reconcile this which happened within the Apostolic age (when divine revelation was still a possibility according to almost every Christian denomination) to periods for instance the assumption of Mary or the IC as you referred to?

Any Protestant who does not agree with Apostolic succession would have no problem saying this council was “okay” as it is still during the time and contained “some” of the original Apostles. Just trying to understand why this should be an actual argument in this case?

Regards
 
Hi Steve,

Not sure ignatius says ***Roman church has presidency over all other churches. ***Depends on who translates.
His letter to the Church of Rome, in his salutation, which means, Ignatius is recognizing the Church of Rome for who she is.

Ignatius doesn’t recognize any other Church that way in his salutation. Which means “preside” for the Church of Rome because it is the chair of Peter, has a different role among the other churches he writes to.

I also said “presides” said another way, is presidency, recognizing both are acceptable.
bh:
" which also presides in the place of the report of the Romans,… and which presides over love,"…short version

“the Church which presides in the place of the region of the Romans,…and which presides over love”…long version (Roberts-Donaldson)

“even unto her that hath the presidency in the country of the region of the Romans,…and having the presidency
of love,” (Lightfoot translation)

He does not mention any bishops in Rome , like he does in his other cities , much less any presiding head bishop/pope.
haven’t we been over this before?
#[315 (https://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=14570296&postcount=315) I mentioned 3 popes during the possible time frame
Ignatius wouldn’t just send this letter in the direction of Rome hoping it gets to who he intends it for…the bishop

He doesn’t have to name the bishop in the letter, he only has to give the instruction that the bishop gets the letter. Ignatius is NOT going to contradict his own rule of “do nothing without the bishop” Epistle to the Smyrnæans ch 8
bh:
If one insists on primacy here, then it is not of office but of Honor again(Peter and Paul being there and head of the western world etc…)…a primacy of “love”’ even.
Ignatius recognized in his letter to the Church of Rome, that many years earlier, this Church had settled sedition among the bishops of Corinth Greece. At a time when John the apostle is still alive living in Ephesus, which is much closer in distance to Corinth than Clement over in Rome

Why didn’t Corinth go to Athens, 50 miles away from Corinth. They are listed in Acts. Or they could have gone to Thessaloniki, again, much closer to Corinth. Read the exchange in Clements letter. Corinth insisted it is the Church of Rome to settle the sedition. That’s because, among bishops, they have no authority in another bishop’s diocese. Except that Clement sits on Peter’s chair.
bh:
And yes he calls it the "Universal Church’’ or the “Catholic Church”. Not sure how widespread the adjective was but certainly it is the first time it is used…And many others consider themselves to be “Catholic” (the Orthodox and scome P’s), and we would indeed be universal still if the western church had not adopted some not so "orthodox’’ positions as her history unfolded (at least that is how P’s and O’s see it).

Blesings
benhur,

As to “Catholic Church”

#[2 (https://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=14581153&postcount=2)
go through all the links. A condensed 1st 400 yearsThere is no disagreement here from the entire Church. That’s why the Nicene Creed makes it an article of belief, to believe in One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church because it is this Church that Jesus established.
 
Hi LA

I have seen many of Sungenis’s debates and things. After I googled his view on Geocentrism I am sorry, but I can’t take anything he says seriously. And also the information regarding his PhD?
Hi Mike.

If you think Sungensis is a poor debater then I think maybe you and I have not seen the the same debates lol. I have not seen him touch on geocentrism as of yet. Not sure about credentials but I have not seen anyone, including Dr. White, question them?

I’ll just leave this gem right here for the benefit of the readers who may be lurking and on the fence:

youtube.com/watch?v=YXXAdzBQ5lA&t
I have often seen Catholics refer to the council in Acts. If we put the argument of the leader there aside, I have another question. How would you reconcile this which happened within the Apostolic age (when divine revelation was still a possibility according to almost every Christian denomination) to periods for instance the assumption of Mary or the IC as you referred to?
Any Protestant who does not agree with Apostolic succession would have no problem saying this council was “okay” as it is still during the time and contained “some” of the original Apostles. Just trying to understand why this should be an actual argument in this case?
I think for the same reason that non-Catholic Christian apologists today are using terms and explanations like “Trinity” and “Communicatio Idiomatum”… Stuff that came from the Nicaea age and beyond??

And the apostles were long gone by then, too.

I mean, with all due respect, the Church is a living institution, not something stuck in a 1st century time warp. We didn’t even have a canon until 405AD…and that eventually happened, in part, thanks to councils/synods.

Over time we have a better or more defined understanding. At first we had a simple x-ray machine…then we moved on to CT scans and MRI’s for better definition…From the 1983 500lb, wooden Zenith SDTV (don’t lie, you know you had one if you are my age lol) to a flat screen, plasma hanging on the wall with crystal clear definition…etc, etc.

I understand the concern for the lack of scriptural support for the Marian Dogmas. But that’s a standard imposed by people assuming a directive that’s not even in the bible itself.

Pax
 
Hi Ben.

Ignatius records the term Catholic for the first time.

Do you think it’s possible that he got it from somewhere?
Hi La,

Well none that is recorded.The most authoritative person closest to his timeline would have been the apostle John. John does not record the term. Ignatius letter could be ten to thirty years after John.

It is not a unique word, and certainly is an understandable adjective after the spread of the church for 75 to a hundred years.

Blessings
 
His letter to the Church of Rome, in his salutation, which means, Ignatius is recognizing the Church of Rome for who she is.
Hi steve,

agree that he writes to the church for who she is , just that we disagree to what that is. For sure he writes very highly of her, but only in general terms, and not as in office, except by interpreting "presiding’’ as over others , instead of “presiding” in a region (Rome).
Ignatius doesn’t recognize any other Church that way in his salutation. Which means “preside” for the Church of Rome because it is the chair of Peter, has a different role among the other churches he writes to.
He does not mention that chair. He mentions Peter and Paul, and that only in regards to all the churches he writes to, that he should be allowed to die in martyrdom(for peter and paul were apostles to much more than just Rome).
I also said “presides” said another way, is presidency, recognizing both are acceptable.
Yes Lightfoot translates presidency.
I mentioned 3 popes during the possible time frame
Ignatius wouldn’t just send this letter in the direction of Rome hoping it gets to who he intends it for…the bishop
He doesn’t have to name the bishop in the letter, he only has to give the instruction that the bishop gets the letter. Ignatius is NOT going to contradict his own rule of “do nothing without the bishop” Epistle to the Smyrnæans ch 8
Well, as the letter suggests , it is written to the entire church at Rome, and its presidency, even if that be a presbytery, for *he names no bishops *as he does the other churches. You would think he would know the pope’s name if indeed there was one. He does not name him. I believe it is because there were many bishops/presbyters in Rome, being a large church in the most populous city of the empire. And why name only one or two and possibly offend the others.
Ignatius recognized in his letter to the Church of Rome, that many years earlier, this Church had settled sedition among the bishops of Corinth Greece. At a time when John the apostle is still alive living in Ephesus, which is much closer in distance to Corinth than Clement over in Rom
OK. Rome has taught others. That may be a reference to their letter to Corinth. It is assumption to think it is because of the papal seat. Everybody seems to forget that Paul was also in Rome, and was very closely tied to Corinth.So his legacy is just as valid as Peter’s presence in Rome. Was Paul a pope ?
That’s because, among bishops, they have no authority in another bishop’s diocese. Except that Clement sits on Peter’s chair.
Again pure assumption and not explicit ,nor implicit in text of any letters.
As to “Catholic Church”
#[2 (https://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=14581153&postcount=2)
go through all the links. A condensed 1st 400 yearsThere is no disagreement here from the entire Church. That’s why the Nicene Creed makes it an article of belief, to believe in One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church because it is this Church that Jesus established.
Agreed. and why the Orthodox and many P’s also say they are “Catholic”. No one says there church is “One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church” as in a proper noun. Wondering if that creed is using adjectives and not proper names. Even the CC drops “One, Holy, Apostolic” from its proper name not matching the creed.

Blessings
 
Hi steve,

agree that he writes to the church for who she is , just that we disagree to what that is.
c’mon benhur, really? 😉

WE’RE NOT RECREATING HISTORY HERE.

the Church of Rome has from the beginning, been the seat of authority. Because it is Peter’s see.
bh:
For sure he writes very highly of her,
That’s an understatement, IMV. Compare salutations with the other Churches he writes to. Hardly anything is said in the salutation. Not so with his letter to the Church of Rome.
bh:
but only in general terms, and not as in office, except by interpreting "presiding’’ as over others , instead of “presiding” in a region (Rome).
“Christians” you mention are **all **Catholics in the Catholic Church. We understand office and authority. Those who don’t and didn’t , were the heretics Paul wrote against, and the Church and the ECF’s wrote against.
bh:
He does not mention that chair. He mentions Peter and Paul, and that only in regards to all the churches he writes to, that he should be allowed to die in martyrdom(for peter and paul were apostles to much more than just Rome).
Ignatius said, “I do not, as Peter and Paul, issue commandments unto you.”

Why is this so hard for you?
bh:
Yes Lightfoot translates presidency.
Well, as the letter suggests , it is written to the entire church at Rome, and its presidency, even if that be a presbytery, for *he names no bishops *as he does the other churches. You would think he would know the pope’s name if indeed there was one. He does not name him. I believe it is because there were many bishops/presbyters in Rome, being a large church in the most populous city of the empire. And why name only one or two and possibly offend the others.
There is only one successor to Peter at a time.
You’re trying to push Protestant thought onto the Church Our Lord established. The reader knows why this Church presides. It is due to the bishop, who in this case, is the successor to Peter and those united to him.
bh:
OK. Rome has taught others. That may be a reference to their letter to Corinth.
It is the reference.
bh:
It is assumption to think it is because of the papal seat.
These are Catholics benhur NOT Protestants.
bh:
Everybody seems to forget that Paul was also in Rome, and was very closely tied to Corinth.
What objectors don’t recognize,

    • Athens
    • Corinth
    • Thessolonica
    • Philippi
    • Galatia
    • Ephesus
    are ALL closely tied to Paul, and they are in one circle to each other, …agreed?

    What else do they have in common?
    • John the apostle is still alive living in Ephesus during the time of Clement’s letter in Rome, settling sedition in Corinth. That alone is HUGE
    • WHY didn’t Corinth go to John?
    • Why not go to those Churches in that circle to settle their sedition? They all had ties to Paul. So Why Clement in Rome?
    Clement is 3rd successor to St Peter
    bh:
    Agreed. and why the Orthodox and many P’s also say they are “Catholic”.
    Only Orthodox who came back in union with the pope and the Church united to him, are considered Catholic. Some Protestant’s came back in union under those circumstances as well, and they can be called Catholic

    When I say union, I mean full union. Not some squishy understanding.
    bh:
    No one says there church is “One Holy Catholic Apostolic Church” as in a proper noun.
    Catholics do because we are
    bh:
    Wondering if that creed is using adjectives and not proper names. Even the CC drops “One, Holy, Apostolic” from its proper name not matching the creed.

    Blessings
    Wonder no more. It’s not speaking in adjectives.
 
steve, your search link didn’t show me anything. Something must be wrong with it.
oops! I see that.
R:
As for why skip all of that history, well because the sources are scarce and left open to a variety of interpretations. Where there is less concrete info, there is more room for speculation. You are more than welcome to not agree with that assessment. I am merely posting information regarding a crucial period of history for Christianity that tends to be better documented than the preceding centuries.
Since the link I gave didn’t work, allow me to grab one of the 33 threads that didn’t come up on that link.

Logical case for Papal Authority
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=855729&highlight=papal+authority

BTW,
  • jinc1019 who opens the thread, while he identifies himself Catholic, as he says later, in the thread, he isn’t practicing any longer, and in fact is quite argumentative to everything he was given.
  • I didn’t see that you participated on that thread
R:
And to be fair, the poster asked for works written by historians, not CAF threads.
😉 fair enough

But also to be fair, early church history = Catholic Church history. The ECF’s are all Catholic. So I can’t see why CAF is eliminated since Catholic history (from primary sources) i.e. ECF’s, is usually included in posts. I contributed 32 times on that thread out of 456 posts
 
Is the video in depth to explain why they aren’t Orthodox instead, then?
 
i wonder who are these “catholics” that hijacked the faith and from where did they come and at what point in time did they create themselves so as to accomplish the hijacking?

perhaps your protestant friend(s) has already answered these questions? if so, could you provide his answers.
 
Sometimes Protestants just skip Church history.

I have a Protestant friend who told me her pastor had them study Church history. “We began with Martin Luther,” she told me.

This would be something similar to studying American history by beginning in the 1950s.

She didn’t see a problem with that.
 
Hi Mike.

If you think Sungensis is a poor debater then I think maybe you and I have not seen the the same debates lol. I have not seen him touch on geocentrism as of yet. Not sure about credentials but I have not seen anyone, including Dr. White, question them?
Well maybe I am not referring to his debates. I watched a few of them with people like James White and they were all “normal” in my opinion.

What I was referring to, this guy literally still thinks the sun revolves around the earth. Google that, I am not joking. His book, “Galileo was wrong” is actually co-authored by his doctoral supervisor. And the very book is based on his doctoral thesis??? (And have a look at the “University” that awarded him this honour). Not even going further that he made statements that could put him in the holocaust denial group.

I would like to believe that White respected a good debate and it would have been quite frowned upon to bring this up as “extra ammunition” during a debate. (Personally in my opinion I don’t think White ever even needed to).
I think for the same reason that non-Catholic Christian apologists today are using terms and explanations like “Trinity” and “Communicatio Idiomatum”… Stuff that came from the Nicaea age and beyond??

And the apostles were long gone by then, too.

I mean, with all due respect, the Church is a living institution, not something stuck in a 1st century time warp. We didn’t even have a canon until 405AD…and that eventually happened, in part, thanks to councils/synods.

Over time we have a better or more defined understanding. At first we had a simple x-ray machine…then we moved on to CT scans and MRI’s for better definition…From the 1983 500lb, wooden Zenith SDTV (don’t lie, you know you had one if you are my age lol) to a flat screen, plasma hanging on the wall with crystal clear definition…etc, etc.

I understand the concern for the lack of scriptural support for the Marian Dogmas. But that’s a standard imposed by people assuming a directive that’s not even in the bible itself.

Pax
On this I have a view.

I have absolutely no problem with believing something happened and so on. The difference is there when it becomes a Dogma (I want to make it clear, I understand this as very serious under Catholic law). IT HAS TO BE BELIEVED. (Personally that places another problem in my opinion).

What I meant was that something like the IC or the Perpetual Virginity has no “proof” in the first Church. Either that it happened or at least was believed. So using the part in Acts is not sufficient. It means it cannot be new, and I know Catholics would say it isn’t. But history would show it rather is. Just my opinion and “one” of my reasons for wondering.

Point being, Acts is not an argument unless the proof is before the death of the last Apostle. After that, something as important as a Dogma,l kinda should be able to be found. Else not enough people “believed it to be important”. So the question, is it new or not. I personally still need a explanation for this and I only used Catholic sources for my thoughts.

Regards LA
🙂
 
Well maybe I am not referring to his debates. I watched a few of them with people like James White and they were all “normal” in my opinion.

What I was referring to, this guy literally still thinks the sun revolves around the earth. Google that, I am not joking. His book, “Galileo was wrong” is actually co-authored by his doctoral supervisor. And the very book is based on his doctoral thesis??? (And have a look at the “University” that awarded him this honour). Not even going further that he made statements that could put him in the holocaust denial group.

I would like to believe that White respected a good debate and it would have been quite frowned upon to bring this up as “extra ammunition” during a debate. (Personally in my opinion I don’t think White ever even needed to).
Hi Mike 🙂

Yeah, I’ve heard for years with him that he is a excellent debator on topics of C’s vs P’s, but has wacked out views on some other topics. I guess geocentrism is one of them.🤷 I’ve also heard that he does not believe in approved apparitions and thinks they are demonic.:eek: If true, interesting to say the least…

But the gentleman who was linked to in the OP isn’t even in Matt Slick’s league , imo, and Slick got pummeled by Sungensis and even protestants acknowledge this. So that is why I had made the comment.
On this I have a view.
I have absolutely no problem with believing something happened and so on. The difference is there when it becomes a Dogma (I want to make it clear, I understand this as very serious under Catholic law). IT HAS TO BE BELIEVED. (Personally that places another problem in my opinion).
Understood.

From the Catholic POV, it’s a system of beliefs that are all intertwined. One can not say I believe in mathematics, but I do not believe in addition, etc.
What I meant was that something like the IC or the Perpetual Virginity has no “proof” in the first Church. Either that it happened or at least was believed. So using the part in Acts is not sufficient. It means it cannot be new, and I know Catholics would say it isn’t. But history would show it rather is. Just my opinion and “one” of my reasons for wondering.
Point being, Acts is not an argument unless the proof is before the death of the last Apostle. After that, something as important as a Dogma,l kinda should be able to be found. Else not enough people “believed it to be important”. So the question, is it new or not. I personally still need a explanation for this and I only used Catholic sources for my thoughts.
Regards LA
I understood the point, but what I am saying is., we see the proclamation made in ACTS 15 as proof of the evolution and authority of the Church even though it was still the apostolic age. Same thing as the Nicene creed. Same thing with the canon…it could be argued before councils - then they slammed the door shut on it in response to heretical views.

Speaking of the canon, there is nothing from the apostolic age telling us what books were canonical. So on that issue you are obviously trusting in the ***post ***apostolic authority of the Church but not on other issues. So is that a double standard there, Michael? I admit there isn’t much patristic evidence for IC. But absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. . I’ve been with my wife for almost 20 years. I’ve always known, generally, her pants size but never mentioned it or recorded it anywhere. Sometimes things are just understood and not even mentioned unless they need to be.

And that brings me to my final point… I think the Marian stuff doesn’t even become dogmatic and remains Orthodox-ish ,(believed but not enforced), if the extreme reformers weren’t spreading misconceptions about her… that she was just a incubator for Jesus…that she was only the mother of the human side of Jesus (ancient heresy). That she had 7 kids, etc, etc. This stuff would have enraged even the protestant version of Martin Luther, imo.
 
WE’RE NOT RECREATING HISTORY HERE.

the Church of Rome has from the beginning, been the seat of authority. Because it is Peter’s see.
Hi steve,

Correct, we do not recreate the past (history) , but recall , or retell, even interpret it.

“from the beginning” can be a suggestive interpretation. Certainly the church first started in Jerusalem, and “was at the beginning”. Thereafter Antioch was formidable and then Corinth. Peter and Paul were not in Rome till maybe three decades after the church started in Jerusalem. So while Peter was a “bishop” in Jerusalem, and then at Antioch and Corinth, he ended up in Rome. Not sure if anyone suggests Peter’s see did not travel with him, as with any apostle.

So while historically Rome was not "at the beginning’’, it could be said in only a general sense, with a backdrop of 2000 years , that yes relatively speaking, Rome was an authoritative see “from the beginning”.

It is assumption that it was Peter’s see and not Peter and Paul’s see. Few early historians separate the two as the foundation for Rome’s "greatness’’, even authority, and of course of honor.
That’s an understatement, IMV. Compare salutations with the other Churches he writes to. Hardly anything is said in the salutation. Not so with his letter to the Church of Rome.
Maybe the church at Rome (almost a century after Jerusalem first church) was the greatest , or largest, influential, church at the time, apart from any famous “see”. I mean if the see of Peter had rested on a much smaller, less worldly influential city , then any glory or honor could be more easily and solely attributed to Peter and the chair. But that is not the case.
“Christians” you mention are **all **Catholics in the Catholic Church. We understand office and authority. Those who don’t and didn’t , were the heretics Paul wrote against, and the Church and the ECF’s wrote against.
I would hope today’s Catholics understand their own hierarchy. Yet it may color the interpretation of what a letter may have implied 1900 years ago and whether a church “presides” in a region or from a region. (just as O and P understanding of hierarchy colors the interpretation).
Ignatius said, “I do not, as Peter and Paul, issue commandments unto you.”
Why is this so hard for you?
Again, did they issue commandments only from Rome , or wherever they traveled ? The paragraph in which this text is found suggests all churches , not just Rome. But yes they certainly issued commandments to the church at Rome during their final few years of life that was spent there. Nothing unusual for a bishop/presbyter/apostle.
There is only one successor to Peter at a time.
Evidence for this is weak. I would think Peter ordained bishops wherever he stayed (Jerusalem, Antioch, Corinth, Rome).

Some suggest the first few popes may have been ordained by Peter as bishops, and that Rome was governed by a plurality of bishops , a presbytery. (Perhaps one of the reasons Ignatius does not mention any Roman bishops as he does other cities).

Peter makes several references of what to do after his departure and makes zero mention of any head appointee successor, and only mentions his authoritative writ to "recall’’ or fall back on .
You’re trying to push Protestant thought onto the Church Our Lord established
Absolutely.
These are Catholics benhur NOT Protestants.
Of course they had not become protestant yet.
*]John the apostle is still alive living in Ephesus during the time of Clement’s letter in Rome, settling sedition in Corinth. That alone is HUGE
Many believe John was not alive at time of the writing, or that he was very aged. The letter and his death are almost within in a year or two of each other.
*]Why not go to those Churches in that circle to settle their sedition? They all had ties to Paul. So Why Clement in Rome?
First, the request was not to clement , but indeed to the “church at Rome” and certainly implying its elders/presbyters/bishops.

As stated earlier if Rome was not so worldly glorious and authoritative you would have a better point. This was all way after Paul was alive, so Corinth was free to choose from any church that was healthy ,and would carry the most weight, if even by size, grandeur, or claimed honor of Peter and Paul’s ministry and glorious ending there.
Only Orthodox who came back in union with the pope and the Church united to him, are considered Catholic. Some Protestant’s came back in union under those circumstances as well, and they can be called Catholic
Yes, that is CC understanding, but not P’s understanding.
When I say union, I mean full union. Not some squishy understanding.
Understand. Yet Catholics are divided as to just how legitimate a “squishy” union can be. After all a union is also with Christ, and that is tougher to dogmatically judge as “squishy”.
Catholics do because we are
Catholics call their church properly as , the Catholic Church. I have not heard anyone say, " I go to the One Church around the corner, or , “the Apostolic Church around the corner”. Of course Catholics describe their church as one, holy, apostolic , but as virtues or adjectives. And if they are such words(adjectives and not proper nouns), so to then could be the word “catholic” be an adjective in the creed.
Wonder no more. It’s not speaking in adjectives.
Then why do you drop those common “words” from your proper name ?
 
Hi steve,

Correct, we do not recreate the past (history) , but recall , or retell, even interpret it.

“from the beginning” can be a suggestive interpretation. Certainly the church first started in Jerusalem, and “was at the beginning”. Thereafter Antioch was formidable and then Corinth. Peter and Paul were not in Rome till maybe three decades after the church started in Jerusalem.
benhur,

Jesus established the hierarchy with Peter as the leader of all. Peter’s see was Rome, and from the beginning, there was no argument about his successors as bishop, except with heretics and schismatics.

Example:
Ignatius of Antioch
You [the See of Rome] have envied no one, but others have you taught. I desire only that what you have enjoined in your instructions may remain in force (Epistle to the Romans 3:1 [A.D. 110]).
Irenaeus
But since it would be too long to enumerate in such a volume as this the succession of all the churches, we shall confound all those who, in whatever manner, whether through self-satisfaction or vainglory, or through blindness and wicked opinion, assemble other than where it is proper, by pointing out here the successions of the bishops of the greatest and most ancient church known to all, founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles. Peter and Paul, that church which has the tradition and the faith which comes down to us after having been announced to men by the apostles. With that church, because of its superior origin, all the churches must agree, that is, all the faithful in the whole world, and it is in her that the faithful everywhere have maintained the apostolic tradition (Against Heresies 3:3:2 [inter A.D. 180-190]).

Cyprian
With a false bishop appointed for themselves by heretics, they dare even to set sail and carry letters from schismatics and blasphemers to the Chair of Peter and to the principal church [at Rome], in which sacerdotal unity has its source" (Epistle to Cornelius [Bishop of Rome] 59:14 [A.D. 252]).

The Lord says to Peter: “I say to you,” he says, “that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church” . . . On him he builds the Church, and to him he gives the command to feed the sheep John 21:17], and although he assigns a like power to all the apostles, yet he founded a single chair [cathedra], and he established by his own authority a source and an intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were that also which Peter was *, but a primacy is given to Peter, whereby it is made clear that there is but one Church and one chair. So too, all [the apostles] are shepherds, and the flock is shown to be one, fed by all the apostles in single-minded accord. If someone does not hold fast to this unity of Peter, can he imagine that he still holds the faith? If he [should] desert the chair of Peter upon whom the Church was built, can he still be confident that he is in the Church? (The Unity of the Catholic Church 4 [A.D. 251]).

Optatus
In the city of Rome the Episcopal chair was given first to Peter, the chair in which Peter sat, the same who was head — that is why he is also called Cephas — of all the apostles, the one chair in which unity is maintained by all. Neither do the apostles proceed individually on their own, and anyone who would [presume to] set up another chair in opposition to that single chair would, by that very fact, be a schismatic and a sinner. . . . Recall, then, the origins of your chair, those of you who wish to claim for yourselves the title of holy Church" (The Schism of the Donatists 2:2 [circa A.D. 367]).

Irenaeus, Cyprian, and Optatus were writing against heretics
bh:
So while Peter was a “bishop” in Jerusalem, and then at Antioch and Corinth, he ended up in Rome. Not sure if anyone suggests Peter’s see did not travel with him, as with any apostle.
So while historically Rome was not "at the beginning’’, it could be said in only a general sense,
with a backdrop of 2000 years , that yes relatively speaking, Rome was an authoritative see “from the beginning”.

For 2000 years, the successor to Peter has been with The Church of Rome.
bh:
Maybe the church at Rome (almost a century after Jerusalem first church) was the greatest , or largest, influential, church at the time, apart from any famous “see”. I mean if the see of Peter had rested on a much smaller, less worldly influential city , then any glory or honor could be more easily and solely attributed to Peter and the chair. But that is not the case.
I just gave 4 ECF’s that cover 400 yrs of history
bh:
I would hope today’s Catholics understand their own hierarchy. Yet it may color the interpretation of what a letter may have implied 1900 years ago and whether a church “presides” in a region or from a region. (just as O and P understanding of hierarchy colors the interpretation).
Again, did they issue commandments only from Rome , or wherever they traveled ? The paragraph in which this text is found suggests all churches , not just Rome. But yes they certainly issued commandments to the church at Rome during their final few years of life that was spent there. Nothing unusual for a bishop/presbyter/apostle.
Evidence for this is weak. I would think Peter ordained bishops wherever he stayed (Jerusalem, Antioch, Corinth, Rome).
Without references properly referenced, you’re just guessing at the history you comment on*
 
Not sure if anyone suggests Peter’s see did not travel with him, as with any apostle.
I’m not sure anyone would. As Peter settled in Rome and thus made that his prime seat, Mark did the same in Alexandria.
It is assumption that it was Peter’s see and not Peter and Paul’s see. Few early historians separate the two as the foundation for Rome’s "greatness’’, even authority, and of course of honor.
Of course it was Paul’s as well. It was just “his” in a totally different context.

Most protestants have either forgotten or never learned that Paul was not “of the 12”. Thus his credibility as the Lord’s apostle hinged critically on his publicly viewed acceptance by the rest of the visible Church. This is fundamentally why Paul followed Peter to Rome.

Without Petrine recognition, Paul would be considered “outside” of the visible Church. He’d be just another false prophet in an era full of them (just like any other era).

Why else did you think Paul sought out Peter and spent a few weeks with him? “Bro-time”? No! It was confirmation into the visible Church.

If you get nothing else, get this: without a visible, authoritative Church, there is no way to discern false prophets from the legitimate - especially if their charismatic sales pitch is very good. 🙂
Again, did they issue commandments only from Rome , or wherever they traveled ?
Neither. They issued teaching from their chairs of Christ-given authority.
Some suggest the first few popes may have been ordained by Peter as bishops, and that Rome was governed by a plurality of bishops , a presbytery.
Some might make that confusion. Some might also point out that major apostolic seats like Mark’s in Alexandria always had something akin to a “curia”, or a council of other appointed men to help with the administration of a growing Church.
As stated earlier if Rome was not so worldly glorious and authoritative you would have a better point.
Your retort here is rather nonsensical. It would have been better if Peter established the prime see in a place that was not the hub of the western world at that time?

Good heavens man, WHY??? It would make the governance of the Church so. much. harder.

For very similar reasons, your Jehovah’s Witnesses set up their camp practically a stone’s throw away from New York City… Just like St. Peters is Rome is a stone’s throw away from the ancient Imperial proper.

So you guys can do it, but if the Catholics do the same, it’s troublesome?
Double-standard, perhaps?
 
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