…
We must believe infallible decrees, and also non-infallible teachings?
Yes. If you are a Catholic who does not already know this, it appears you were poorly catechized.
Yet, there’s a distinction, for example, between “common teaching” (
sententia communis) and “certain teaching” (
sententia certa). Catholics are bound to give their religious assent to
sententia certa.
Sententia communis is considered free opinion in Catholic dogmatic theology, which Catholics are not canonically bound to assent to. We can know the difference by looking at the context of the teaching, how is was presented, the words used to present it.
For example,
limbo of infants was taught in *
some *Catechisms. Many aspects of which are still considered free opinion, such as St. Thomas’ contention, contrary to St. Augustine, that this is a place of “blissful” existence, without the pain of torment. Catechisms often present “common teaching” which is free opinion, as well as doctrine (certain teaching). You have to read such teachings in context and discern the intend of the Roman Pontiff given that context to understand whether it is a certain teaching (ie. Catholic doctrine) or free opinion. If you are doubtful, you can ask your lawful pastor, bishop, and even write to the Holy See to clarify. You don’t have to rely upon your own fallible interpretation of Scripture or ecclesial texts. Simply ask. The Teaching Church has a duty to clarify that which is doctrine as distinct from that which is free opinion.
What if someone from the 1950’s defended to the death the Baltimore Catechism’s instructions on mixed marriages
It isn’t important what “someone” thinks, not even the author of a local catechism which is not part of my bishop’s ordinary teaching authority. We aren’t protestants. We are Catholics. We are bound to assent to
official Catholic doctrines, whether infallible or not, not what “someone” asserts is Catholic doctrine.
Thus, if “someone” is asserting something contrary to what your pastor teaches, your bishop, or your pope, then it isn’t Catholic doctrine. Furthermore, if your pastor is teaching contrary to your bishop, he does so without just authority. If you bishop teaches contrary to the pope, he too does so without just authority. You have a simple chain of command that doesn’t include “someone” but only includes these three pastors or any others they themselves delegate authority to. We are called only to submit to the lawful pastor of our soul, not what “someone” asserts contrary to that authority.
The Baltimore Catechism no.4 on mixed marriages states,
*289 Q. Why does the Church forbid the marriage of Catholics withpersons who have a different religion or no religion at all?A. The Church forbids the marriage of Catholics with persons who have adifferent religion or no religion at all because such marriagesgenerally lead to indifference, loss of faith, and to the neglect of thereligious education of the children.
Note that it doesn’t say because it is an article of faith, or some other doctrinal reason. So if I were that “someone” who contended it was
immutable dogma, I would be making that assertion contrary to lawful pastors of the Church. The fault would be mine, not the Church. I would be ripping the teaching from its authentic context, the context being canon law, which even when the Baltimore Catechism was written, such a prohibition
could be dispensed. Pius VII wrote, “
such marriages are only tolerated out of the need to avoid even greater evils, and permission is not given wholeheartedly” *(*Pius VII, letter to the Archbishop of Mayence, Oct. 8, 1803).
If a law can be dispensed, then it cannot be rightfully understood to be immutable dogma, right?
BTW, Mixed marriages is still prohibited by canon law. You
need dispensation from law to marry a non-Christian (cf.
CHAPTER VI. MIXED MARRIAGES) . To marry a Christian who is not Catholic, you need permission from the Bishop, only after certain conditions are fullfilled. Thus, you are still bound to the disciplinary norms regarding mixed marriages which the lawful pastors of the Church deem are prudent. Why do they impose such restrictions, STILL? Because *such marriage can lead to lead to indifference, loss of faith, and to the neglect of the religious education of the children. *
And take that to today–someone defends to the death church teaching forbidding ESC research, or homosexual unions…
Again, these teachings are to be presented and defended in accord with what the
Teaching Church teaches. I will always defend to the death, even the non-immutable precepts which the Church teaches, and I don’t need “immutability” or “infallibility” to be my reason. Because I have faith that even of the non-immutable ordinary teachings of the Church, it is true to say, “
he that receiveth whomsoever I send receiveth me: and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me.” (John 13:20)
I also understand what authentic doctrinal development is, what discipline is, and so I don’t fall into
the fallacy of thinking that everything the Church states is immutable.
I agree instead with
Ven. John Henry Cardinal Newman:
***"I say with Cardinal Bellarmine whether the Pope be infallible or not in any pronouncement, anyhow he is to be obeyed. No good can come from disobedience. **His facts and his warnings may be all wrong; his deliberations may have been biassed. He may have been misled. Imperiousness and craft, tyranny and cruelty, may be patent in the conduct of his advisers and instruments. But when he speaks formally and authoritatively he speaks as our Lord would have him speak, and all those imperfections and sins of individuals are overruled for that result which our Lord intends (just as the action of the wicked and of enemies to the Church are overruled) and therefore the Pope’s word stands, and a blessing goes with obedience to it, and no blessing with disobedience." [John Henry Newman “'The Oratory, Novr. 10, 1867”, The Genius of Newman (1914), by Wilfrid Ward, Vol II, Ch. 26)