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It’s interesting to read the many different translations of Matthew 1:25. The link below has a bunch of them, and I don’t see the word “after” in any of those translations. The point Boettner was making was not that the passage from Matthew 1:22-25 is proof that Mary had additional children or conjugal relations with Joseph after Jesus was born (though he did believe that such an inference is not without merit), only that we know for certain that Mary was a virgin at least “until after” Christ was born, and this was necessary to fulfill the prophecy quoted from Isaiah 7:14, that a virgin would conceive and bear God’s Son. What Joseph and Mary may or may not have done after that point does not affect the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy. Here are excerpts from a couple commentaries:if brother/cousin/close relative is a translation debate, couldn’t the UNTIL also be a translation debate? And for those of us with various Bibles, some translations . . . omit the word “After.”
Clarke’s Commentary: He knew her not - Had no matrimonial intercourse with her - Till she had brought forth that son of hers, of whom the evangelist had been just speaking, the first-born, the eldest of the family, to whom the birthright belonged, and who was miraculously born before she knew any man, being yet in a state of virginity. See on Matthew 13:55 (note). The virginity of Mary, previously to the birth of Christ, is an article of the utmost consequence to the Christian system; and therefore it is an article of faith: her perpetual virginity is of no consequence; and the learned labor spent to prove it has produced a mere castle in the air. The thing is possible; but it never has been, and never can be proved.
Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible: this conduct of his [Joseph’s not engaging in the conjugal act with Mary] was necessary, till she had brought forth her firstborn; that it might be manifest not only that she conceived, being a virgin, but also that she brought forth, being a virgin: for both are signified in the prophecy before related, “a virgin shall conceive and bring forth a son”; which is all one as if it had been said, a virgin shall conceive, and “a virgin” shall bring forth a son. The “firstborn” is that which first opens the womb of its mother, whether any follows after or not, Exodus 13:12. Christ is called Mary’s firstborn, because she had none before him, whether she had any after him or not; for her perpetual virginity seems to be no necessary article of faith: for when it is said, Joseph knew her not till she had brought forth, the meaning is certain that he knew her not before. But whether he afterwards did or not, is not so manifest, nor is it a matter of any great importance
bible.cc/matthew/1-25.htm
Edit: My goodness but I do think and type slowly. I didn’t see Randy Carson’s excellent reply when I started, or I might have skipped answering at all. The various commentaries at the link I provided are fun to look at though, and approach the possibility of Mary’s having had additional children somewhat differently.