What differences in the roles of father and mother that were present when that labelling started are relevant and still applicable today? In other words other than giving birth what is it that a father does today that a mother does not do (and vice versa) that have some implication on one’s understanding of God?
A Father - being the husband - is the head, sustainer, and the creator in the act, while a mother - being the wife - is subject to the Father, participating in his creation, and the one giving life by pregnancy and birth. There is a clear distinction. As we see, God more fully fulfills the role of a Father.
What about how the trinity acts is “masculine”?
The relationship between
the Father and
the Son and their relationship to humanity.
Would this also mean that if someone were in some region that spoke a language where their word for “God” had no grammatical gender that their baptism would be considered invalid? Ex: If I were in Japan and were baptized under the names エホバ (Ehoba, for Jehovah), イエス (Iesu, for Jesus) and 聖なる御霊 (Seinaru mitama for holy spirit) that their baptism would be considered invalid?
You’re building a straw man. What must be understood in each language is that the the form for baptism must convey the proper names of the persons of the Trinity so as to distinguish each member properly; St. Thomas Aquinas deems this the “essential element” of baptism. If it were understood in that language to simply be “God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit”, then it would be invalid because the proper names must be used in order to correctly distinguish the persons of the Trinity. How different languages may convey that will of course greatly vary, and seeing that I do not speak Japanese, I cannot accurately speak on how they convey that. Though, I did go on YouTube and watch a Catholic baptism in Japan and the words the priest used while baptizing were along the lines of, “Chantoko to seirei to” (I tried to listen as closely as possible), which translated to “The Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit” on google translate.
Is Matthew 28:19 trying to communicate to specifically use those words, or is it communicating to specifically identify for which God they are baptizing in a world in which there were people that believed in many other gods?
Yes, the Church teaches that those specific words must be used or else the baptism is invalid. This is why the Church does not accept forms like, “In the name of the Creator, the Redeemer, and the Sanctifier.”
“9). The Church has no right to change what Christ himself has instituted. Therefore, any Baptism is invalid when it does not contain the invocation of the Most Holy Trinity, with the distinct expression of the three Persons with their respective names” (A New Response of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith on the Validity of Baptism, Msgr. Antonio Miralles)
Read further:
http://www.vatican.va/roman_curia/c...oc_20080201_validity-baptism-miralles_en.html