P
petra
Guest
During our discussions of dissent, infallibility, and Matt. 16:18, it became apparent to me that there is some circular reasoning here.
The Church “infallibility” interprets the verse to support the fact that it can infallibly interpret the verse. The verse itself is somewhat ambiguous, indicating that the gates of Hades will not prevail agains [the Church]. The Church interprets this to mean that she will never be in error in the interpretation of scripture and will never err in dogma, doctrine, and morals. If the scripture explicitly said “the Church will never be in error in the interpretation of scripture and will never err in dogma, doctrine, and morals” it would be apparent to all and it would prove infallibility without circular reasoning. But in this case, we must believe in such infallibility before any proof is offered.
Circular arguments are logical fallacies. As such, we must eliminate this argument as proof of the Church’s infallibility. We must look to other proofs instead. What might those be?
The Church “infallibility” interprets the verse to support the fact that it can infallibly interpret the verse. The verse itself is somewhat ambiguous, indicating that the gates of Hades will not prevail agains [the Church]. The Church interprets this to mean that she will never be in error in the interpretation of scripture and will never err in dogma, doctrine, and morals. If the scripture explicitly said “the Church will never be in error in the interpretation of scripture and will never err in dogma, doctrine, and morals” it would be apparent to all and it would prove infallibility without circular reasoning. But in this case, we must believe in such infallibility before any proof is offered.
Circular arguments are logical fallacies. As such, we must eliminate this argument as proof of the Church’s infallibility. We must look to other proofs instead. What might those be?