Another post from my
blog:
With all the news these days about governments (both here and in Canada) ruling against various religious activities and speech, I am just wondering if today’s governments can be considered “just” in their rule. Looking through the Catechism, the following leaps out:**1902 **Authority does not derive its moral legitimacy from itself. It must not behave in a despotic manner, but must act for the common good as a “moral force based on freedom and a sense of responsibility”.[1]
A human law has the character of law to the extent that it accords with right reason, and thus derives from the eternal law. Insofar as it falls short of right reason it is said to be an unjust law, and thus has not so much the nature of law as of a kind of violence.[2]
**1903 **Authority is exercised legitimately only when it seeks the common good of the group concerned and if it employs morally licit means to attain it. If rulers were to enact unjust laws or take measures contrary to the moral order, such arrangements would not be binding in conscience. In such a case, “authority breaks down completely and results in shameful abuse.”[3]
**1904 **“It is preferable that each power be balanced by other powers and by other spheres of responsibility which keep it within proper bounds. This is the principle of the ‘rule of law,’ in which the law is sovereign and not the arbitrary will of men.”[4]
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[1] GS 74 # 2.
[2] St. Thomas Aquinas, STh I-II, 93, 3, ad 2
[3] John XXIII PT 51.
[4] CA 44.
We are suppose to participate in government to the best of our abilities (mainly through voting). But, what if the government becomes so unjust that participation become impossible or illegal do to our following the truths of Natural Law set down by God and propagated by the Catholic Church. What is our recourse? **Violence is not an answer to the questions put forth.**If this looks familiar, I did post about this a number of years back under another login which I unofficially retired.
