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This question arose in my Bible study this morning. We have two accounts of temple cleansing: Matthew 21:12-17 and John 2:12-25. I’ve always assumed these were two descriptions of the same event. However Aquinas says that these were two separate events:
I’m sure this has been covered here, but can anyone help clarify?
diafrica.org/kenny/CDtexts/John2.htm389 He gives his reason for this when he says, stop making my Father’s house into a marketplace. “Take away your evil from my sight” (Is 1:10). Note that Matthew (2 1:13) says: “Do not make my house a den of thieves,” while here he says, a marketplace. Now the Lord does this because, as a good physician, he begins first with the gentler things; later on, he would propose harsher things. Now the action recorded here was the first of the two; hence in the beginning he does not call them thieves but merchants. But because they did not stop such business out of obstinacy, the Lord, when driving them out the second time (as mentioned in Mark 11:15), rebukes them more severely, calling robbery what he had first called business.
I’m sure this has been covered here, but can anyone help clarify?