Clementine or Stuttgart Vulgate?

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I missed this paragraph in the first response:
The Stuttgart Vulgate is an edition prepared by the German Bible Society, part of the united bible societies. This is a Protestant organization. The Stuttgart Vulgate is not a Catholic edition of the Bible. This version attempts to reconstruct an earlier type of the Latin Bible, closer to the time of Jerome.
Does it matter if they’re not Catholic? As long as their scholarship is honest and impartial. Jerome wasn’t a Protestant, so the Stuttgart should be pretty close to the Clementine in terms of renderings. Or do you have any specific examples where the SV is maverick?
 
Does it matter if they’re not Catholic? As long as their scholarship is honest and impartial. Jerome wasn’t a Protestant, so the Stuttgart should be pretty close to the Clementine in terms of renderings. Or do you have any specific examples where the SV is maverick?
I disagree with the premise that one should practice separation of faith and scholarship. Bible translation and editing is substantially affected by doctrine, because doctrine is substantially based on Scripture.
 
In that case, there’s no point in backing up your doctrines using scripture, since scripture is based on doctrines.

The manuscripts say what the manuscripts say, regardless of your particular faith. It is possible to objectively translate apart from your religion. Sure, everyone is hostage to bias, even if it is just a tiny amount. But is it enough to say that a Protestant can never make a proper Catholic Bible? That’s nonsense. Do you have any examples of where the Stuttgart has renderings that are biased against Catholic doctrines?
 
Yes, it is supported by the Greek. I have looked at the Greek (interlinear), and it is supported, but there is some ambiguity in how to interpret the Greek phrasing. So the modern scholar merely looks at the text and gives the more ordinary phrasing, as if the person speaking were not the Son of God. But the Latin Scriptural tradition takes into account the meaning of the words in the context of the entire Faith, so the wording in Latin has Jesus saying that He is The Beginning. And this phrasing also fits the context of the passage in John, in which Jesus makes repeated references to the Three Persons of the Trinity; (one could even say that the whole Gospel of John is a discourse on the Trinity).
Ron,

The bold, underlined clause says it all for me.

Thank you kindly.
 

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In that case, there’s no point in backing up your doctrines using scripture, since scripture is based on doctrines.

The manuscripts say what the manuscripts say, regardless of your particular faith. It is possible to objectively translate apart from your religion. Sure, everyone is hostage to bias, even if it is just a tiny amount. But is it enough to say that a Protestant can never make a proper Catholic Bible? That’s nonsense. Do you have any examples of where the Stuttgart has renderings that are biased against Catholic doctrines?

the same reasoning would also rule out​

  • the NAB - 59 Catholics, four Protestants, & one Jew worked on it (it lists their names)
  • the RSV - which is of Protestant descent, and included Harry Orlinsky among the translators
  • the Vulgate - St. Jerome was instructed in Hebrew by a Jew
  • the Septuagint - made entirely by Jews.
    Why not by-pass these disgusting perversions - no Catholic would ever sink so low as use them. Would they ? 🙂
As for Christianity - more of those Jews. Not a Catholic was in sight when that was founded; just Jews. 🙂

Theological apartheid has no future - not in a universal Church. Though we could keep those wretched non-Catholics at arm’s length by chucking the works of St. Thomas on the bonfire, & those of other compromisers like that pseudo-Catholic ex-Manichee Augustine; for Thomas quotes Jews, pagans, Muslims, heretics, schismatics as well as Catholics: re-volting ! 🙂

What goes for modern Biblical scholarship, is good enough for the past.
 
Theological apartheid has no future - not in a universal Church. Though we could keep those wretched non-Catholics at arm’s length by chucking the works of St. Thomas on the bonfire, & those of other compromisers like that pseudo-Catholic ex-Manichee Augustine; for Thomas quotes Jews, pagans, Muslims, heretics, schismatics as well as Catholics: re-volting ! 🙂
What goes for modern Biblical scholarship, is good enough for the past.
😃
 
ελεγον ουν αυτω : συ τις ει
[They]-said, therefore, to-him: “you – why are-you?”
tis means who, not why.
ειπεν αυτοις ο ιησους την αρχην ο τι και λαλω υμιν
[He]-said to-them, “the Jesus, the first, the ‘why’ and I-am-giving to all-of-you”
Iesous is the subject of eipen; he’s not referring to himself in the third person.

ho ti could mean a lot of things but “the ‘why’” would be most unexpected.

lalo means I am speaking or saying, not I am giving.

Because ten arxen is in the accusative case, it seems iffy that Jesus could be saying, “The Beginning,” in response to the question “Who are you?”
 
Because ten arxen is in the accusative case, it seems iffy that Jesus could be saying, “The Beginning,” in response to the question “Who are you?”
St. Cyril, St. Augustine, and St. Ambrose all read that verse as Jesus saying that He is The Beginning. The original Rheims NT and the Challoner revision both have that same translation: The Beginning.

It is unwise to look merely at one Greek text and translate it in isolation from the entire rest of the Church.
 
tis means who, not why.

Iesous is the subject of eipen; he’s not referring to himself in the third person.
Superb! But yes and no.

Everything I have said is based on other verifiable examples.

τι, τις, both suggest the question why. That τι, and τις can also means ‘who’ as a pronoun, I do not dispute. They are interrogative clues in ancient Greek as the “?” or “;” wasn’t invented yet. Sentences beginning with them often answer the question “why” in English because that is often what a question is about.

Now to superficially disagree:
ειπ-εν – does refer in the “third” person (He) so, even if I accept your statement ειπ-εν still implies someone is talking in the “third” person – although, I think you are pointing to the nominative (a subject) indicated by “ο” (ho) right before Jesus so what you mean is that the ‘author’ of scripture is referring to Jesus in the third person – which would be normal, not royal. Yes? In deference to the thrust of your remark – “the” (“ο”) could make Jesus the subject of the whole sentence – rather than the subject of the quote. There are no quote marks either though… and when starting a sentence, and `ο can be used as a pronoun by itself… so it isn’t absolutely certain that Jesus is part of the subject (although, I will agree that your idea is quite reasonable, and more likely than mine at first glance.)

The word Ιεσ-ους (Jesus) itself has an accusative plural case ending (ους) – ( The name Hannah in the OT does show that even proper names can be declined in Greek, ανν-α, ανν-αν, 1Sam 1:5 ) – So, the name Jesus could be in the predicate part of the sentence rather than the subject and therefore defnitiely part of the Quote and Jesus is then speaking of himself in the third person, and plural to boot: (plural AND a Hebrew word – Jesuss) – now, interpretation is everything – 😃

(Could you clarify your argument, I think you might be able to prove the point better than my admittedly crude translation)
ho ti could mean a lot of things but “the ‘why’” would be most unexpected.
Yes, that was the point of the translation! to point out that odd things can be read into the sentence depending on how one looks at it. In English “the WHY” would also be most unexpected – also note that “the” (`ο) in Greek is a subject(a nominative), so “the why” is the Subject of a sentence – as it is followed by “και λαλω” it can’t be the subject of the next sentence.
(subject “and” followed by verb, is not a compound subject!)

Therefore, “the why” (or he-whom?) is quite odd no matter which way one reads it.
lalo means I am speaking or saying, not I am giving.
Again, I am working from other examples… λαλω does translate “I am giving” occasionally in other places.
Because ten arxen (την αρχεν) is in the accusative case, it seems iffy that Jesus could be saying, “The Beginning,” in response to the question “Who are you?”
OK, you have my interest – I am not sure why it would be iffy, so please explain. What a delightful conversation! I am learning a bundle.
 
If St. Cyril read it that way, that is really interesting. I must have missed that.
 
Everything I have said is based on other verifiable examples.
Yes, that was the point of the translation! to point out that odd things can be read into the sentence depending on how one looks at it.
Time flies like an arrow; fruit flies like a banana.

It is possible that a “time fly” is a kind of fly like a fruit fly, and therefore the sentence “time flies like an arrow” is making the surprising assertion that this species of fly happens to like arrows. But just because that reading is conceivable doesn’t mean it’s reasonable.

su tis ei means “who are you?”. eipen de autois o Iesous means “And Jesus said to them.” To bend these phrases to other meanings would require you to entertain the same meanings in all the other occurrences in the Bible (and the latter construction is VERY common).
The word Ιεσ-ους (Jesus) itself has an accusative plural case ending (ους)
That is not how Iesous declines.
OK, you have my interest – I am not sure why it would be iffy, so please explain. What a delightful conversation! I am learning a bundle.
In answer to the question su tis ei you would expect an answer in the nominative case: he arxe [eimi].

However, in modern English you would use the accusative case: in answer to the question “Who did this?” you would say “Me” – you can only answer “I!” if you’re wearing a cape – and it’s imaginable that something like this happened in Greek. I think I read that this did happen in later Latin.

If St. Cyril read ten arxen as the answer to su tis ei, that would be evidence that something like this did happen, but I would still wonder whether it happened before or after St. John wrote.

Still, if the Greek is to be understood as “The Beginning, who is also speaking to you,” why would ho ti be neuter? he arxe is feminine and Jesus is masculine.

So, an “adverbial accusative” still seems like the most viable contender: compare perhaps Phil 3.1: to loipon doesn’t mean “the rest” here, but “finally.”
 
St. Cyril, St. Augustine, and St. Ambrose all read that verse as Jesus saying that He is The Beginning. The original Rheims NT and the Challoner revision both have that same translation: The Beginning.

It is unwise to look merely at one Greek text and translate it in isolation from the entire rest of the Church.
A further thought: Rheims and Challoner were both working from the Vulgate; St. Augustine and St. Ambrose were both working from the old Latin. They don’t necessarily count as multiple independent witnesses and not “the entire rest of the Church.”

As I said before, if St. Cyril read it the same way, that is really interesting.

The Latin versions and the Fathers should absolutely be taken into account both in interpreting the Greek and also in trying to reconstruct the original text. I think that was the original point made earlier in the thread, and I agree that the Nova Vulgata should absolutely not supplant the various editions of the old Vulgate.

Nevertheless, consulting the Greek is not looking “merely at one Greek text”; it remains our primary witness to St. John’s original inspired words.
 
Ah, an interesting article on this verse appeared last year: CC Caragounis, “What Did Jesus Mean by ten arxen in John 8:25?”, Novum Testamentum 49, 129-147. In a footnote he says:
The Fathers generally understood ten arxen in the well-known classical sense of “at all”, “to begin with”. Thus, [St. Clement of Alexandria, but the citation is St. Cyril of Alexandria]: edei gar me, phesin, oux humin holos proslalesai kata ten arxen (“He says, I ought to have not speaken [sic] to you at all”), and [St. John Chrysostom]: ten arxen ho, ti kai lalo humin. ho de legei, toiouton esti: tou holos akouein ton togon ton par’ emou anacioi este (“What he says, is the following: To begin with, you are unworthy to hear my words”).
And he also notes the Rheims translation, and St. Augustine and St. Ambrose as you have pointed out. So it appears to me to be a case of East vs. West.
 
Time flies like an arrow; fruit flies like a banana.

It is possible that a “time fly” is a kind of fly like a fruit fly, and therefore the sentence “time flies like an arrow” is making the surprising assertion that this species of fly happens to like arrows. But just because that reading is conceivable doesn’t mean it’s reasonable.
I am definitely beginning to enjoy this!
Since I have no practical experience of a “time fly” – I would not see why it is unreasonable to think such a creature likes an arrow – I have noticed certain house flies which land on the arrow of a clock. But I do get your pointer other than that.
su tis ei means “who are you?”.
Fair enough, although my eccentric “why! something are you?” ends up raising the same question.
eipen de autois o Iesous means “And Jesus said to them.” To bend these phrases to other meanings would require you to entertain the same meanings in all the other occurrences in the Bible (and the latter construction is VERY common).
Yes, and since I have been examining the Greek by example – it is very difficult to separate out the issue at my stage of the game.
I didn’t check for the commonness of the latter construction when I made my hyper-hyper literal translation. I examined the possibilities according to what I have verified so far – and took a stab at it.
That is not how Iesous declines.
Ok, I won’t argue this point – I will just note that it is a coincidence that it ends in ους (Which hapens to be a Greek accusative ending.) Although, God saves (plural) doesn’t seem to be totally unreasonable … just unlikely 😉
In answer to the question su tis ei you would expect an answer in the nominative case: he arxe [eimi].
`η αρχε ειμι] // the ‘I am’ being implied otherwise, yes…
However, in modern English you would use the accusative case: in answer to the question “Who did this?” you would say “Me” – you can only answer “I!” if you’re wearing a cape – and it’s imaginable that something like this happened in Greek. I think I read that this did happen in later Latin.
“I” is an English subject (nominative) and “me” being the predicate (accusative) case. Yes, I see, … and not only that but some people are overly paranoid in English and say things like: “Who are coming except John and I?” rather than “John and me”.

Ok, I follow that reasoning – this I did not know, and will have to check into more.
Thank you for pointing that out, as an English bias does appear to have tripped me up here.

As a side note, when I first learned electronics, my teacher told me it all runs on smoke. If you let the smoke out – it no longer works. So, I am not quick to discount other possible meaning of sentences – because the equivocal statement is sometimes used on purpose – one never knows for certain when Jesus might be pulling a teaching moment joke on his adversaries.
If St. Cyril read ten arxen as the answer to su tis ei, that would be evidence that something like this did happen, but I would still wonder whether it happened before or after St. John wrote.
Ummm,
ten archen = τ-εν αρχ-εν ?
I think you mean: τ-ην αρχ-εν? or t-ην αρχ-ην?
I’ll figure it out in a bit.
Still, if the Greek is to be understood as “The Beginning, who is also speaking to you,” why would ho ti be neuter? he arxe is feminine and Jesus is masculine.
Yes, exactly – it is odd as far as I can tell.
Although, isn’t `ο (ho) masculine?
So, an “adverbial accusative” still seems like the most viable contender: compare perhaps Phil 3.1: to loipon doesn’t mean “the rest” here, but “finally.”
hmmm … Ok, I’ll look – and get back to you after thinking about it.
 
Ummm,
ten archen = τ-εν αρχ-εν ?
I think you mean: τ-ην αρχ-εν? or t-ην αρχ-ην?
Sorry for my sloppy transliteration, I’m doing e = eta or epsilon, o = omicron or omega, x = chi, c = xi.
Although, isn’t `ο (ho) masculine?
The ho in ho ti is the relative pronoun, and is neuter. The masculine would be hostis.
 
OK. I understand about the transliteration.
The text I have does not show breathing marks unless I go to the faximilies, eg. Tishendorf, etc. – so alternate readings become a problem οτι verses ο τι, etc. So I am assuming the parsing of the text I have is correct and that individual ο is a ο etc.

… I’m still digging, but for example LXX Joshu 24.27 reads:
… λεχθεντ-α αυτ-ω κυρι-ου `ο τι ε-λαλη-σ-εν …

`o τι takes the force of “which” here, and I would have previously thought it referred to Lord – as a masculine word, but it refers back to λεχθεντ-α (words/lexical) as a neuter?
So the “words” themselves spoke rather than the Lord?

1Samu 19:3 reads:
… τ-ον πατερ-α μ-ου και οψο-μαι `ο τι εαν η και …

“The father of me”, has an explicitly masculine article (τ-ον) rather than the neuter – (τ-ο). Hmmm… Yet clearly it is what the father (Saul) is doing, which will be reported by Jonathan.
πατερ-α has the older ending for words ending in (λ,ρ) which although not neuter does ‘look’ like a neuter ending.
Hmmm…

2Chro 32:13
ου γνω-σεσθε ο τι ε-ποιη-σ-α εγω και οι πατε-ρ-ες Not know(self) ο τι ? I and the(pl/masc) fathers…
`ο τι = (what) – but this is not referring to a noun, but a verb – to destroy utterly.

Job 34:4 `o τι καλ-ον
what [is] good.
That could be neuter, but doesn’t have to be.

Lamen 5:1 μνησθητι κυρι-ε ο τι εγενηθη … τον ονειδισμον ημων
This is again “what” has come to be, which is “reproach” (τ-ον)
So that interpretation is also masculine…

I guess, I am having difficulty verifying what you say concerning the neuterness of `ο τι – it seems, as often as not, to be masculine. So, it isn’t a very strong point to call it neuter, anyway. I will keep looking, but it also does not seem to agree with feminine things so far…
 
A brief word search came up with this, but I am not sure which Cyril it is yet – or if it applies at all. But it is curious, the beginning here – appears to be leadership which is what αρχ- normally seems to refer to. First of the Jews?

Cyril. H. xii. 17 σημεῖ-ον οὖν ἔδω-κε τ-ῆς Χριστ-οῦ παρουσί-ας τ-ὸ παύ-σασθαι τ-ὴν ἀρχ-ὴν τ-ῶν Ἰουδαί-ων.

Perhaps more later, when I get some time to actually do some in depth looking.
 
Ron,
Quite right. Although I might phrase things a bit differently.
The Neo-Vulgate, although not teaching error – isn’t protected from inserting a less clear rendition of the Teaching.
The Greek clearly has one statement of the truth, and was used by the church at one time or another – so these two – the Vulgate and the Greek – must not teach a contradiction, although they may vary in the clarity with which they teach truth.

Do you have the variant readings of the Greek for John 8:24 handy you are speaking of?

In the text I am looking at, the ambiguity is quite limited – a definite article appears before τι ( why / or something ). So, even as a question – the Greek is making a ‘noun’ statement out of a question.

But in English one can make a statement which is ambiguous in exactly the same way as the Greek – I could say: Jesus, the first “why?” or again, Jesus the first reason.

In either case, the sense of “what I have told you from the first” takes on the notion of “told = word = creation”, and recalls the creative act of Genesis which is also the opening statement of St. John concerning the “word was God.”

But let’s look at the Greek briefly:

John 8:25

ελεγον ουν αυτω : συ τις ει
[They]-said, therefore, to-him: “you – why are-you?”

ειπεν αυτοις ο ιησους την αρχην ο τι και λαλω υμιν
[He]-said to-them, “the Jesus, the first, the ‘why’ and I-am-giving to all-of-you”

alternately, translating “τι” taken as the question type of pronoun eg:“something”

Therefore they said to-him, “you – something are-you?”
[He]-said to-them, “Jesus is the first something and I-am-giving to -all-of-you”

So, I interpret it like this (crudely):

Therefore they said to him: why! you are something?
He said to them, “Jesus [is] the first something and I-am-giving to-all-of-you”

So, I agree – Jesus calls himself the “first” and the “why” in Greek as the Clementine Vulgate translates properly.

But, comparing the English translations – Jesus does not do so in the first person “I” but in the third person by referencing his own name “Jesus”.

Unfortunately, the meaning of Jesus (God Saves) isn’t clear in the Greek (it’s a Hebrew/Aramaic word) – but the odd phrasing of the sentence would surely have made the Greek audience wonder what “Jesus” meant by not saying “I”, but speaking of himself as “Jesus” – a royal statement at least! But more likely calling attention to the fact that his name means something.

I don’t know if even the Greek is much clearer, though, than:
“'what I have been saying to you from the beginning.”

For Jesus’ mixed audience clearly does not believe him in any event.
His answer is evasive, in that he is avoiding giving them grounds for accusing him of blasphemy – but at the same time “judging” them (see V. 26) based on scripture.
The Robinson Pierpont parsed tranliterated text gives:
8:25 elegon 3004 5707 {V-IAI-3P} oun 3767 {CONJ} autw 846
{P-DSM} su 4771 {P-2NS} tiv 5101 {I-NSM} ei 1510 5719 {V-PAI-2S}
kai 2532 {CONJ} eipen 3004 5627 {V-2AAI-3S} autoiv 846 {P-DPM} o
3588 {T-NSM} ihsouv 2424 {N-NSM} thn 3588 {T-ASF} archn 746
{N-ASF} o 3739 {R-ASN} ti 5100 {X-ASN} kai 2532 {CONJ} lalw 2980
5719 {V-PAI-1S} umin 4771 {P-2DP}
they were saying then to Him: who are thee? and Jesus said to them: “I say to ye : one whom is the authority.”
The Greek root “arch” is found in all sorts words tetrarch, eparch, hierarch with the meaning of being the leader or magistrate. This fits nicely with his next comments on judging them.
 
The Stuttgart Vulgate is an edition prepared by the German Bible Society, part of the united bible societies. This is a Protestant organization. The Stuttgart Vulgate is not a Catholic edition of the Bible. This version attempts to reconstruct an earlier type of the Latin Bible, closer to the time of Jerome.

The Clementine Vulgate was prepared first under Pope Sixtus V and then revised under Pope Clement VIII. Four editions were published: 1590, 1592, 1593, 1598. The latter is generally what is called the Clementine Vulgate. This was the official version of the Bible in Latin in the Catholic Church until the approval of the Nova Vulgata (1979/1986).

The Nova Vulgata, in my opinion, represents a clear break in the Latin Scriptural Tradition, since it frequently rephrases the text, in the manner of a dynamic equivalency translation, and it relies on Hebrew and Greek texts in preference to the Latin text, in most cases where there is any disagreement between the texts.

Paradoxically, Vatican Bible translation norms require that the Latin text take precedence over other languages whenever there is a conflict or uncertainty. But the Neo-Vulgate relies on the Hebrew and Greek in cases of conflict or uncertainty.

My recommendation: don’t buy the Nova Vulgata. Get a copy of the Clementine Vulgate. The Hetzenauer edition is one of the better edits (circa 1914).
No Ron: The Stuggart Edition was a Catholic work edited by R Weber OSB.
It
is based on earlier critical editions of the Vulgate, including the Benedictine edition and the Latin New Testament produced by Wordsworth and White, which provided variant readings from the diverse manuscripts and printed editions of the Vulgate and comparison of different wordings in their footnotes
.
The Nova Vulgata sprung out after the
Second Vatican Council in Sacrosanctum Concilium mandated a revision of the Latin Psalter in accord with modern textual and linguistic studies, while preserving or refining its Christian Latin style. In 1965 Pope Paul VI appointed a commission to revise the rest of the Vulgate following the same principles. The Commission published its work in eight annotated sections, inviting criticism from Catholic scholars as the sections were published. The Latin Psalter was published in 1969; the New Testament was completed by 1971 and the entire Nova Vulgata was published in 1979. A second edition was published in 1986.
The foundational text of most of the Nova Vulgata’s Old Testament is the critical edition done by the monks of the Benedictine Abbey of St. Jerome under Pius X. The foundational text of the books of Tobit and Judith are from manuscripts of the Vetus Latina rather than the Vulgate. The New Testament was based on the 1969 edition of the Stuttgart Vulgate. All of these base texts were revised to accord with the modern critical editions in Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic. There are also a number of changes where the modern scholars felt that Jerome had failed to grasp the meaning of the original languages, or had rendered it obscurely.
Quotes from en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulgate and I note that Wordsworth and White were Anglicans.
 
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