P
plan19
Guest
It was put to me in my RCIA class that suffering is a redemptive force, and Colossians 1:24 was cited as evidence. I also found this passage quoted in paragraph 1508 of my Catechism.
Colossians 1:24
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church,
Paragraph 1508
vatican.va/archive/catechism/p2s2c2a5.htm#I
Now… On this, I check my catechism, and right there in the index, under redemption, it says “meaning only ascertainable in faith”, and points me to paragraph 573.
Paragraph 573
vatican.va/archive/catechism/p122a4p1.htm
I’m having a hard time with interpretation of this Scripture… especially given it was misquoted as “in my suffering I complete what is lacking in the church”… which I don’t think was being said.
From my understanding, Colossians was written by Paul from a Roman jail with the perspective of “if it makes things better, then I’m glad to endure this hardship”. Now, the interesting concept is the use of the word “afflictions”, which I take to refer to the hardships Christ endured during his LIFE, rather than during his Passion… I think this passage can be paraphrased as
Original:
Colossians 1:24
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church,
Paraphrased:
I am glad to endure the hardship of my current situation, and my resolve is only strengthened in the knowledge that I am carrying on Christ’s work.
Am I correct in this understanding that Col 1:24 reflects similar sentiment to 1 Peter 1:6-7, 2 Corinthians 12:9-10, Mark 4:24, etc? Basically that hardship is good in that it can serve to strengthen our faith and resolve? That it’s expected, because it’s not easy to do the right thing always…?
Basically like castor oil… hardship is good for you… but not redemptive, right?
Thanks, guys.
-Gordon
Colossians 1:24
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church,
Paragraph 1508
vatican.va/archive/catechism/p2s2c2a5.htm#I
Now… On this, I check my catechism, and right there in the index, under redemption, it says “meaning only ascertainable in faith”, and points me to paragraph 573.
Paragraph 573
vatican.va/archive/catechism/p122a4p1.htm
I’m having a hard time with interpretation of this Scripture… especially given it was misquoted as “in my suffering I complete what is lacking in the church”… which I don’t think was being said.
From my understanding, Colossians was written by Paul from a Roman jail with the perspective of “if it makes things better, then I’m glad to endure this hardship”. Now, the interesting concept is the use of the word “afflictions”, which I take to refer to the hardships Christ endured during his LIFE, rather than during his Passion… I think this passage can be paraphrased as
Original:
Colossians 1:24
Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I complete what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church,
Paraphrased:
I am glad to endure the hardship of my current situation, and my resolve is only strengthened in the knowledge that I am carrying on Christ’s work.
Am I correct in this understanding that Col 1:24 reflects similar sentiment to 1 Peter 1:6-7, 2 Corinthians 12:9-10, Mark 4:24, etc? Basically that hardship is good in that it can serve to strengthen our faith and resolve? That it’s expected, because it’s not easy to do the right thing always…?
Basically like castor oil… hardship is good for you… but not redemptive, right?
Thanks, guys.
-Gordon