Comments on Infallibility please

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mardukm said:
If anyone has the time or incilincation, I would appreciate comments from my Latin Catholic brethren on a thread I started in the Eastern Catholicism Forum regarding papal infallibilty.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=494568
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I noticed Honorius showed up in your thread also

The last time it happened to me I asked the detractor who brought up Honorius, to define infallibility as the Church defines it, not a mischaracterization of infallibility… He took me up on that. He quoted from Vat I. 👍

"We teach and define that it is a dogma Divinely revealed that the Roman pontiff when he speaks ex cathedra, that iswhen in discharge of the office of pastor and doctor of all Christians, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine regarding faith or morals to be held by the universal Church, by the Divine assistance promised to him in Blessed Peter, is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer willed that his Church should be endowed in defining doctrine regarding faith or morals, and that therefore such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves and not from the consent of the Church irreformable."

😉 this definition actually ended the issue

all I did THEN was ask him
  • did Honorius in his conversations with Sergius, define a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the universal Church?
The answer to the question is no. Honorius didn’t define a doctrine of faith, and he didn’t teach it as an article of faith for the Church to believe.

Ergo, the charism of infallibility wasn’t violated. Case closed!!!
M:
I would be most interested in your comments on post # 38 of that thread.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=7101169&postcount=38

Thank you.

Blessings,
Marduk
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Regarding the definition of infallibility above, it identifies the source of papal infallibility.
  • It’s from God.
  • it’s not a matter of consent of the Church
I think that’s the main point you were making…true?
 
Dear brother Stever,
steve_b said:
I noticed Honorius showed up in your thread also;) this definition actually ended the issue

all I did THEN was ask him
  • did Honorius in his conversations with Sergius, define a doctrine of faith or morals to be held by the universal Church?
The answer to the question is no. Honorius didn’t define a doctrine of faith, and he didn’t teach it as an article of faith for the Church to believe.

Ergo, the charism of infallibility wasn’t violated. Case closed!!!
Click to expand...
👍
Regarding the definition of infallibility above, it identifies the source of papal infallibility.
  • It’s from God.
  • it’s not a matter of consent of the Church
I think that’s the main point you were making…true?
Click to expand...
Yes, indeedee.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
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