F
FortressGiant
Guest
So here is a question that has occurred to me before that I’m not able to figure out the theological answer to…Suppose Bob is an unbaptized member of Religion X and in Religion X it is taught that there is a certain sin that, if committed, will automatically lead to Hell. Bob one day, with full consent and full knowledge, commits this sin and after that believes he is damned.
He eventually goes on to become baptized in the Catholic Church. However, he goes on to wonder:
He eventually goes on to become baptized in the Catholic Church. However, he goes on to wonder:
- Did this count as the sin against the Holy Spirit?
- Is he damned with no hope of salvation since he freely at one point, even though a member or another religion at the time, chose something that he believed would lead to Hell?
- Would the answers to the above two questions differ if there was a lack of consent and/or understanding of what he was doing when he did it?
- FG