Communion after perfect contrition

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I had a word with Father about this after Mass today. He is sure this is correct and says he was taught this in seminary. This time he did add “if it is impossible for the person to get to confession, then they can receive and confess afterwards.” He promised to check on this however. Are we sure that this is incorrect?
As I noted…there must be a* grave reason *as well…for that exception (together with act of perfect contrition including resolve to get to confession as soon as possible)

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The sacrament of Penance is different from Communion
And is required before anyone in mortal sin can worthily receive communion.

Pope John Paul II is saying for absolution to be granted (and thereby making the person worthy of receiving Communion), there is the need to live in continence. Those who do not practice continence in such a state are in persistent mortal sin, and therefore cannot receive Communion without committing sacrilege.

Thing is, this is nothing new. Part of the requirement to be worthily absolved is the firm resolve to not sin again. For the divorced and remarried, this includes the intention to separate, or, if not possible, to abstain from sexual relations until their marriage is regularized.
 
Perfect contrition is described in the Catechism as sorrow of the soul and detestation for the sin committed, together with the resolution not to sin again, arising from a love by which God is loved above all else.

1451 Among the penitent’s acts contrition occupies first place. Contrition is "sorrow of the soul and detestation for the sin committed, together with the resolution not to sin again."50

1452 When it arises from a love by which God is loved above all else, contrition is called “perfect” (contrition of charity). Such contrition remits venial sins; it also obtains forgiveness of mortal sins if it includes the firm resolution to have recourse to sacramental confession as soon as possible.51
If an act of Perfect Contrition is motivated purely out of sorrow and detestation of the sin, then an act of contrition said in which the desire to receive Communion plays at least some part in the motivation, then it would seem that this means the contrition is not an act of perfect contrition.

Why take the risk? You do not have to receive Communion every time you go to Mass, so why not just refrain from receiving Communion and receive again after you have been to Confession?
 
And is required before anyone in mortal sin can worthily receive communion.

Pope John Paul II is saying for absolution to be granted (and thereby making the person worthy of receiving Communion), there is the need to live in continence. Those who do not practice continence in such a state are in persistent mortal sin, and therefore cannot receive Communion without committing sacrilege.

Thing is, this is nothing new. Part of the requirement to be worthily absolved is the firm resolve to not sin again. For the divorced and remarried, this includes the intention to separate, or, if not possible, to abstain from sexual relations until their marriage is regularized.
You can’t say what remarried Catholic’s conscience is. To give absolution, the disciple John Paul II gave is that they must reject there way of life. But he didn’t say they can’t be given communion under any situation. The present Pope has allowed free discussion of the issue because it is an open issue. If a boy is struggling with masturbation, it is up to the priest to decide if he should give the medicine of the Eucharest
 
The principle “you must objectively in the mind believe with the Church to have communion (except is special cases!” is too fuzzy to be a hard rule. It’s just a guideline to protect the Church from scandal. Where to draw the line can’t be said for sure for the very reason that God is not concerned so much with objective agreement on doctrine, but with the heart
 
If an act of Perfect Contrition is motivated purely out of sorrow and detestation of the sin, then an act of contrition said in which the desire to receive Communion plays at least some part in the motivation, then it would seem that this means the contrition is not an act of perfect contrition.

Why take the risk? You do not have to receive Communion every time you go to Mass, so why not just refrain from receiving Communion and receive again after you have been to Confession?
There can be multiple motivations present. The key is that “God is loved above all else”. There also does not have to be detachment from all sins with perfect contrition.

You asked “Why take the risk?”
There must be a grave reason to receive, in addition to perfect contrition and the intention to confess, according to canon law.
 
You can’t say what remarried Catholic’s conscience is. To give absolution, the disciple John Paul II gave is that they must reject there way of life. But he didn’t say they can’t be given communion under any situation. The present Pope has allowed free discussion of the issue because it is an open issue. If a boy is struggling with masturbation, it is up to the priest to decide if he should give the medicine of the Eucharest
Actually what was stated is: “Reconciliation in the sacrament of Penance which would open the way to the Eucharist.”

He gave two reasons, objective sin, and scandal:
  1. “the fact that their state and condition of life objectively contradict that union of love between Christ and the Church which is signified and effected by the Eucharist.”
  2. “if these people were admitted to the Eucharist, the faithful would be led into error and confusion regarding the Church’s teaching about the indissolubility of marriage.”
Now, if a person commits an objective sin, and knows it, and can avoid it and does not do so, it becomes a subjective sin with culpability.
 
You have no right to say that any remarried Catholics are in sin, nor that you are in a state of grace. “their state and condition of life objectively contradict that union of love between Christ and the Church” is not rigid. It has it’s place (I shouldn’t have called it “fuzzy”), but only in the sense that truth is to be preached. However, if a remarried couple convinces a priest that “this is just how we are, I’m sorry, please don’t judge us”, the Church can allow the priest to give them communion so they have the grace and medicine to increase in truth.
 
In such cases, I think they bring judgement upon themselves. How is communion going to help them when they OPENLY AND PERSISTENTLY defy Church teachings?
 
… the Church can allow the priest to give them communion so they have the grace and medicine to increase in truth.
The couple in question have to examine their conscience — which is to be conformed to the teachings of the Church — and to repent of their mortal sins (such as they may be) as well as go to Confession before they can receive the Most Holy Sacrament of the Altar.

If they receive Christ in a state of mortal sin, they receive absolutely no grace and absolutely no medicine.

Instead, they commit a sacrilege, which is a further mortal sin.

Anyone who says any differently is spreading falsehoods which are incredibly dangerous because they can encourage souls to willfully embrace hell.

As for us, we don’t judge whether or not any individual — other than ourselves — subjectively is in a state of mortal sin. That requires information we don’t have access to. It is, amongst other things, the sin of usurpation: only God has the ability to look into hearts. Moreover, charity demands that we bend over backwards to avoid making rash judgments, and if we fail in this regard, we are endangering our own souls.

However, on an object level, we are perfectly able to look at behaviors and determine whether or not they contradict God’s moral law as revealed to His Church. Furthermore, especially when we have responsibility over another, it is our duty to encourage a person who is objectively sinning to repent and to do penance. Again, charity demands that we do such a thing, because it greatly increases their likelihood of avoiding hell by repenting of their sin. To simply tell such a person, “well, I can’t judge you” is, for cowardly reasons and for human respect, to avoid our obligations to our neighbor.

We will answer to God for both of these sorts of sins.
 
You have no right to say that any remarried Catholics are in sin, nor that you are in a state of grace. “their state and condition of life objectively contradict that union of love between Christ and the Church” is not rigid. It has it’s place (I shouldn’t have called it “fuzzy”), but only in the sense that truth is to be preached. However, if a remarried couple convinces a priest that “this is just how we are, I’m sorry, please don’t judge us”, the Church can allow the priest to give them communion so they have the grace and medicine to increase in truth.
It is not saying that they are in sin, but in a scandalous situation. Scandal may be given even from some action or omission that is not sinful, rather it has the appearance of sin, and is therefore misleading to the weak. The couple may be in a state or mortal sin or not, depending upon other factors mentioned in the previous post. It is possible for reception but may require that the person go to a parish where one is not known. It is necessary that those living together as husband and wife in an invalid marriage, abstain from marital relations, and giving scandal (to outsiders, children, and each other), to be properly disposed.
 
However, if a remarried couple convinces a priest that “this is just how we are, I’m sorry, please don’t judge us”, the Church can allow the priest to give them communion so they have the grace and medicine to increase in truth.
No he cannot. A priest cannot knowingly give Communion to someone who has remarried. They are not ‘self-administering’ Communion, so it is not simply a matter betweem themselves and God, the priest is involved in this action.
 
In such cases, I think they bring judgement upon themselves. How is communion going to help them when they OPENLY AND PERSISTENTLY defy Church teachings?
If they are openly defying Church teaching, you are correct. The way the situation was presented, this would be the case. I think other cases might be more difficult, where Church teaching is not violated, but the normal course of discipline fail to fit.
 
You are all simply stating your prudential judgments. Since it is a serious sin to rashly judge someone, the two reasons for not giving communion to the remarried is to preach the truth about remarriage and to avoid scandal. If both conditions are met, they can be given communion, just like giving communion to a non-Catholic can be allowed. There were those who said such was never allowed, but Church law now allows it for the first time in Church history. We also have to strive not to be envious of the remarried.

I remember a very holy priest giving communion to someone with an immodest image on his shirt. He assessed the attitude of the young man and decided the communion may help he see more truth with regard to chastity.
 
so they have the grace and medicine to increase in truth.
The Eucharist is not simply ‘spiritual medicine’, the Eucharist is the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of Christ. The Eucharist is God Himself. We receive as an act of worship and honour, not as a means to gain spiritual benefit for ourselves.
 
The Eucharist is not simply ‘spiritual medicine’, the Eucharist is the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity of Christ. The Eucharist is God Himself. We receive as an act of worship and honour, not as a means to gain spiritual benefit for ourselves.
Remarried Catholics in good conscience can worship and honor Jesus. It is a very hard personal situation that you can’t judge others about. If the priest sees they are in good faith, he can give them communion. The Church certainly hasn’t said otherwise infallibly. Where has she taught otherwise even fallibly. The quote given by Vico merely says confession (not communion) “cannot” be given without acceptance of Church doctrine. But cannot why? Because its a discipline or a doctrine? Can you answer that question? The Church does allow exceptions for non-Catholics when the situation is grave.
 
No he cannot. A priest cannot knowingly give Communion to someone who has remarried. They are not ‘self-administering’ Communion, so it is not simply a matter betweem themselves and God, the priest is involved in this action.
This seems to be the case. And when has anyone here seen the priest (or minister) actually withhold communion from anyone who went up to receive?
 
Since it is a serious sin to rashly judge someone, the two reasons for not giving communion to the remarried is to preach the truth about remarriage and to avoid scandal. If both conditions are met, they can be given communion, just like giving communion to a non-Catholic can be allowed. There were those who said such was never allowed, but Church law now allows it for the first time in Church history.
Where do you get the idea that the law has changed on this? Church law has not changed like this. Nothing has changed as far as Church law is concerned, as a result of the Synod, nothing at all.
 
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