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steve_b
Guest
We’re having a similar conversation on another thread. Maybe you should jump inActually, it wasn’t meant for the Orthodox. Greek Orthodox have valid Sacraments, and the standard for administering the sacraments to them is very much easier.
You’re on the right track, though. It was meant for times of war, persecution, natural disaster—which is how the canon itself phrases it (that’s what grave necessity means—it is the highest standard below only "danger of death.). It was meant for Catholic military chaplains on a battlefield, or Catholic priests in Communist countries, or similar situations. Or yes, your example of stranded on a desert island (what theologians call the “Gilligans Island scenario”)
It was never meant for the kinds of situations today where Holy Communion is being distributed to non-Catholics (almost) without any criteria at all.
You’re absolutely right: it was meant for emergencies. The problem we have now is that it is being wrongly applied and expanded.
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=13560296&postcount=129
Orthodox Eucharist valid but illicit?