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6glargento
Guest
why did the catholic church for so long only offer communion under one kind when jesus said “drink my blood”. I know the response is usually “We don’t want to risk it being desicrated by being spilled” but it doesn’t sound like jesus was too concerned about this at the last supper. When i read the early church fathers, it sounds like they practiced communion under both kinds and one Eastern Orthodox person said to me “If your church is the true church, why did your church for so long only offer communion under one kind, while we have always offered it under both kinds in accordance to tradition?” When trying to explain the real presance to a protestant I sometimes get slapped with “I find it interesting that catholics make a big deal over the lords supper and then turn around and celelbrate it improperly by only offering the bread.” How do we respond to thoes who try to use the practice of communion under one kind to attack the catholic churches credibility and consistancy.