Compartmentalization due to hell

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I agree Thomas sounds like he is cheating. But I am weak enough to think when my human parent choose to give more to my brother than to me (inheritance, actual inheritance), it is hard not to feel that one child is loved more. And I know I would not chose heaven were God not to give me lots of unmerited grace to do so, to move my will. So heaven is a gift to me, not a choice that I feel I have control over.

But I know others feel more like they have chosen to believe. And then to them it feels like all were given the same choice, the same graces, and those in hell simply turned it down.
 
And I know I would not chose heaven were God not to give me lots of unmerited grace to do so, to move my will.
Ahh, but He gives that exact grace to all, and in the same measure. So, it’s not that God “give more to my brother than to me”. It is a choice that you make with the gift that you’re given, so it’s not that God actively loves him more than you. (That’s what Thomas is getting at, of course: with respect to the person: identical. With respect to what the person receives, contingent on his receipt and cooperation with the gift: more or less.)
But I know others feel more like they have chosen to believe. And then to them it feels like all were given the same choice, the same graces, and those in hell simply turned it down.
Well… you know that that’s what the Church teaches… right?
 
So far as I know, I am allowed to hold the Thomist position on election (sufficient grace, efficacious grace, predestination, etc), unless something has changed recently. I agree that those who are saved (go to heaven) freely chose to cooperate with grace. I feel strongly the inadequacy of my will, absent him choosing to give grace to move it.

I will give a short quote Q26:

Yet why He chooses some for glory, and reprobates others, has no reason, except the divine will.
 
I agree that those who are saved (go to heaven) freely chose to cooperate with grace. I feel strongly the inadequacy of my will, absent him choosing to give grace to move it.
These are both correct and proper understandings.

However, the “grace to move the will” is given in equal measure to those who cooperate with it and those who do not. Therefore, the ‘lack’ in grace isn’t found in God’s gift; it’s found in the individual who refuses to cooperate.

I totally agree that we absolutely need God’s grace to attain to heaven – or even to be able to cooperate with grace! However, God’s “choosing to give grace” to you is not any different than His choice to give grace to any human, regardless of their final destination!
I will give a short quote Q26:
I.23ad3, right? 😉

Here, Aquinas is discussing “foreknowledge of merits”, so I’m not sure the quote applies (other than being in concert with his notion that God isn’t unjust in His judgments)…
 
Therefore, the ‘lack’ in grace isn’t found in God’s gift; it’s found in the individual who refuses to cooperate.
Yes, the one who does not chose is responsible for the result. But why did the one chose for and the other not? The difference seems to be in God’s grace, to me, because I have a hard time seeing the will of one person as better than another’s, unless God gifted it so. (Now my brain hurts. I have no desire whatsoever to get this wrong! Faith seeking understanding takes effort 🤯)
 
But why did the one chose for and the other not? The difference seems to be in God’s grace, to me, because I have a hard time seeing the will of one person as better than another’s, unless God gifted it so.
That’s exactly the opposite of what the Church teaches! The difference isn’t in God (as if He desires one to be saved and the other not, and thus, stacks the deck against the unlucky one); the difference is in us.

It’s an interesting question – exactly where do we place the blame in the person who chooses (culpably) not to accept God’s grace? In the will? The intellect? 🤔
 
Well, a defect of understanding could come from previous culpable faults, blinding the intellect. But two men, equal in mind and will and situation, one choses right, one not, it seems to be a choice, so in the will, so their wills in fact are not the same?
 
But two men, equal in mind and will and situation, one choses right, one not, it seems to be a choice, so in the will, so their wills in fact are not the same?
That smacks of determinism, not free will, wouldn’t you say?
 
Determinism is false, so their wills are free. But each did will something different, so what their will tended to (preferred) was not the same. They chose differently, but freely.
 
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If we deny grace, the impetus to be and do good, then we sin. The source of sin, like grace, is a mystery. When presented with a moral decision, a decision that has good or bad outcomes, how free are we to choose? In the presence of a decision to do good or bad, human are 1) free to choose, neither being influenced by grace or evil (Pelagius), 2) not free, but propelled to evil (Augustine), and 3) not free, but overpowered by grace (Rahner).

St. Augustine’s response to Pelagius’ doctrine that humans freely choose evil, says, human beings do not ever enjoy a condition of pure indifference in the exercise of freedom. Rather the corruption of human nature by sin entails a predisposition to evil, a bias toward it, which precedes and forms choice.

Rahner argues that the indwelling grace inherent in our nature is the stronger force. For Rahner, original sin is a reality, but it is never equal to the lure of transcendence. Original grace, Rahner believes, is more powerful. The theologies seem to contradict, but I believe all three can be synthesized.

There are three moments that Augustine must explain: What is human nature before the Fall, during the Fall, and subsequent to the Fall? He explains two. Augustine tells us that human nature changed as a result of the Fall, was corrupted by it, and is now inclined to sin. But what was the nature during the Fall? It seems to me that human nature must have been open to sin before and during the Fall.

While Rahner’s theology of grace does not depend on a change in human nature, it does stipulate that we are less free to sin than the doctrines of either Pelagius or Augustine. A sinful act, according to Rahner, is all the more culpable because we are not completely free to sin, but must, in the first moment, overcome the overpowering “supernatural existential” impelling us to do good. Having rejected grace, we are now at Pelagius’s free-to-choose location, and then, in the second moment, we choose to sin. Rahner would have us struggle to sin, whereas Augustine has us struggle to be good. Pelagius says it is an even bet.

I am more inclined to the Catholic, Lutheran, Augustinian, and Pauline formulations of grace than the Rahnerian. But the self-referential bias of existentialism may offer a way to synthesize these doctrines. Perhaps Rahner’s “supernatural existential” was, at the time of his exposition on grace, actualized such that he felt grace as propelling him to do good at all times. St. Paul call himself the “chief of sinners” (1 Timothy 1:16). Augustine confessed himself as a past prolific sinner. Historians note Luther as an overly scrupulous sinner. I am still a pilgrim, a befuddled, but hopeful, sinner. We claim grace to be an equal potential in all of us. But in actualizing, experiencing our potential, Paul, Augsutine and I are not as far along as Pelagius, who, himself, falls short of Rahner. We all admit to the power of grace, agree as to its incidence, but differ in our experience of its power.
 
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St. Thomas Aquinas is not a Thomist. S.T. I, Question 19. The will of God, Article 6:
Reply to Objection 1. The words of the Apostle, “God will have all men to be saved,” etc. can be understood in three ways.

First, by a restricted application, in which case they would mean, as Augustine says (De praed. sanct. i, 8: Enchiridion 103), “God wills all men to be saved that are saved, not because there is no man whom He does not wish saved, but because there is no man saved whose salvation He does not will.”
S.T. I, Q.81 " Although free-will [Liberum arbitrium—i.e. free judgment] in its strict sense denotes an act, in the common manner of speaking we call free-will, that which is the principle of the act by which [man] judges freely."
S.T. I, Q19, A8 " Therefore to some effects He has attached necessary causes, that cannot fail; but to others defectible and contingent causes, from which arise contingent effects. Hence it is not because the proximate causes are contingent that the effects willed by God happen contingently, but because God prepared contingent causes for them, it being His will that they should happen contingently."
 
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Vico:
St. Thomas Aquinas is not a Thomist.
🤔
Because Thomism arose after St. Thomas Aquinas died. They formed new opinions based upon his thinking but the school extended beyond St. Thomas in their theological speculations.
 
I’ve never read Rahner. But I can see how one would feel less free to sin. But I’ve always attributed that to upbringing and natural virtues and the like, making it seem hard to do certain sins.
 
I’ve never read Rahner. But I can see how one would feel less free to sin. But I’ve always attributed that to upbringing and natural virtues and the like, making it seem hard to do certain sins.
The natural virtues are necessary but not sufficient to the avoidance of sin. And, if thought as ends in themselves, the virtues do not lead us to a life well lived, to happiness. Correctly understood, virtue – the habit of right action, is God’s gift – habitual grace. Grace is not an end but His instrument to bring us to salvation, eternal life with God.

St. Augustine, always brutally honest (and sometimes vain) explains:
Salvation, such as it shall be in the world to come, shall itself be our final happiness. And this happiness these philosophers refuse to believe in, because they do not see it, and attempt to fabricate for themselves a happiness in this life, based upon a virtue which is as deceitful as it is proud."
– St. Augustine, The City of God , XIX, 4.
 
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