So by this logic since adultery is at least procreative it is a lesser sin than masturbation?
The gravity of a sin depends on intention, moral object, and consequences. Intentions vary, so let’s consider moral object and consequences. Adultery has worse consequences than masturbation, because of the harm to spouse and family. Adultery has the evil moral object of breaking the marriage vows, as well as depriving sexual acts of the marital meaning. When the marriage is a Sacrament, the sin of adultery is graver still. So considering moral object and consequences, adultery is more grave.
If we consider only the procreative aspect, adultery has a weakended/diluted/harmed procreative meaning; masturbation has a deprivation of the procreative meaning. So masturbation is worse on that particular point, but not worse overall.
Consider a mortal sin committed with a good intention, compared to a venial sin committed with a bad (but not grave) intention. The font of intention is worse in the venial sin than in the mortal sin. But overall the mortal sin is worse.
I don’t see that as a valid analogy since you’re placing the physical above every other aspect of the sexual act. You’re essentially saying: as bad as cheating on your spouse may be, please don’t make it worse by using a condom. That’s absurd.
The commission of a grave sin does not make the other sins, or other sinful aspects of the same sin, moral or morally neutral or exempt from the moral law. So if a man commits adultery, and he lies venially to his mistress, the lie is still a sin. He should not have lied. He also should not have committed adultery. It is not absurd to apply the morally law equally to all acts and their fonts. So if a man commits adultery (two evil moral objects and harmful consequences plus in all probability a bad intention) and he adds any additional immoral or any additional immorality to that sin, the additional immorality remains immoral. His act of adultery does not exempt him from the moral law.
Once again, a complete over emphesis on the physical. The physical act is ordered properly but the moral act is not properly ordered unless all aspects are present.
There are degrees of disorder, as you yourself imply by asserting that adultery is worse than masturbation. The fact that the moral act is not properly ordered does not exempt the person from any requirement of the moral law, great or small.
Adultery is a grave sin.
Adultery with a minor is graver still.
Adultery with a minor by rape is graver still.
The disorder of adultery does not permit the adulterer to make his act of adultery more grave without any additional culpability.
Not true. Contraception is acceptable/morally irrelevant in cases of rape.
Ipse dixit.
“Freedom makes man a moral subject. When he acts deliberately, man is, so to speak, the father of his acts. Human acts, that is, acts that are freely chosen in consequence of a judgment of conscience, can be morally evaluated. They are either good or evil.” (CCC, n. 1749)
“no human act is morally indifferent to one’s conscience or before God”
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/ccatheduc/documents/rc_con_ccatheduc_doc_19880407_catholic-school_en.html
There are numerous magisterial documents teaching that contraception is intrinsically evil, and that intrinsically evil acts are independed of intention and circumstances. Do I need to cite them for you, or are you familiar with these points? The circumstance that an intrinsically evil act occurs along with a graver sin does not exempt the intrinsically evil act from the moral law.
The three fonts of morality always apply. Every bad intention makes an act a sin, or a graver sin. Every deprivation in the moral object makes an act a sin or a graver sin. And the more that the reasonably anticipated bad consequences outweigh the good consequences, the more sinful the act becomes.
