Condoms morally justified under certain circumstances?

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Under the premises of the catholic church, it is sinful for a rapist to use a condom.
Assertion not in evidence. The catholic moral theology that is the basis for what the simple-minded like to call the catholic “ban” on contraception simply doesn’t apply to rape.

I stand by my assertion that there is no basis to tell a rape victim that she’d be a sinning to beg her rapist to wear a condom. There is nothing beautiful here for contraception to violate or degrade.
 
Assertion not in evidence. The catholic moral theology that is the basis for what the simple-minded like to call the catholic “ban” on contraception simply doesn’t apply to rape.
I outlined all my reasons in the post. If you want to refute it, try addressing the merits of the argument.
There is nothing beautiful here for contraception to violate or degrade.
Except for the baby…
 
A married man intending on infidelity and wondering if he compounds his sin with a condom is morally rearranging the deck chair on the Titanic. :rolleyes:
Indeed, good analogy.
Assertion not in evidence. The catholic moral theology that is the basis for what the simple-minded like to call the catholic “ban” on contraception simply doesn’t apply to rape.

I stand by my assertion that there is no basis to tell a rape victim that she’d be a sinning to beg her rapist to wear a condom. There is nothing beautiful here for contraception to violate or degrade.
Exactomundo. Such a situation isn’t consensual marital intercourse.

Interestingly, that is where the the two situations (rape and adultrous intercourse) are similar in the arguments of said theologians. Conception is meant only to occur from a loving act between two spouses. While the language “disordered” isn’t used, conception occuring from either of these two types of acts is never really meant to be, never should be, and never was ordered to be. The argument goes that acting against conception in situations where conception was never really ordered to occur is not necessarily “conception” as we define it for a married couple. 🤷

Of course the arguments are more fully developed and much better articulated than I’ve suggested, and are not meant in the least to lessen the gravity of contraception within a marrital union.

But again, the Titanic analogy applies well to these situations. 👍
 
See by Dr Jeff Mirus:
catholicculture.org/commentary/articles.cfm?id=179
“Outside of marriage, sexual relations are already disordered. They have no proper ends and so the frustration of these ends through contraception is intrinsically morally irrelevant.”
Dr. Jeff is spot on. He wrote:

“It is worth remembering that there is no proper context for sexual intercourse apart from marriage; this is why it is impossible for human persons to psychologically separate contraception from the marital context.”

With this in mind, there was no reason for Pope Benedict to comment on condoms.
 
See by Dr Jeff Mirus:
catholicculture.org/commentary/articles.cfm?id=179
“Outside of marriage, sexual relations are already disordered. They have no proper ends and so the frustration of these ends through contraception is intrinsically morally irrelevant.”
Yes - but the Pope did say that using contraception in these cases can represent a realisation of the effects of their sin and be a first step in the moral direction.

So in answer to the OP, yes - in cases when the sexual act itself is frustrated or disorderd using condoms is more moral than not using them
 
Chrono13 (#28)
[Outside of marriage] the Pope did say that using contraception in these cases can represent a realisation of the effects of their sin and be a first step in the moral direction…. in cases when the sexual act itself is frustrated or disorderd using condoms is more moral than not using them.
No it not “more moral”, but the idea may signify the possibility “in the intention of reducing the risk of infection, a first step in a movement toward a different way, a more human way, of living sexuality.” (Benedict XVI. See Jeff Miller at: tinyurl.com/2774mor )

The Irish Times
Wednesday November 24, 2010

“All the Pope is saying is that, for an individual living a life of sexual abandon (prostitution), the use of a condom might, just might, set off a process of self-reflection in that person which might lead to a more responsible attitude to the use of his sexuality. This is not a case of “justifying” the use of a condom.”
Rev Dr D Vincent Twomey SVD,
Professor Emeritus of Moral Theology,
Divine Word Missionaries,
Maynooth,
Co Kildare.
renewamerica.com/columns/keane/101127
 
Rape is fundamentally about power and domination. But for the sake of discussion, let’s look at it.

FIRST, you must step back and comprehend what Church teaching is ACTUALLY about. Contraception isn’t a sin because it’s “on the list”, it’s a sin because it inherently harms a human’s ability to give and receive love as God designed us. When a married couple contracepts, they not only sever the procreative function, but damage the unitive one as well.

When a rape victim begs a rapist to use a condom, she isn’t committing an act that degrades her innate sexuality. She is just trying to protect herself from SOME of the harm her attacker is attempting to inflict. There IS no mutual loving relationship there to be degraded by the act of contraception. However unrealistic the scenario, it would not be a sin. Similarly if there exists (and I’m no expert) a spermicidal treatment that a rape victim could take after the fact that doesn’t also have lethal effects on zygotes, that protective act would be morally justified.

Remember, catholic moral theology is not arbitrary. It is based on underlying principles. Understanding the principles is always better than memorizing the rules. It isn’t the condom that is evil, it is the degradation that it causes to human sexuality that is evil. Blow it up and twist it into an animal shape all you want! 😛
I actually agree with your overall point. I must take issue with one of your statements. You said, “However unrealistic the scenario.” It actually has happened. It was a landmark case in California (I believe in the 1980s). I know of cases since then where the victim pleaded for the rapist to use a condom. The case law and statutes came down saying this does not constitute consent. I am a police officer, so I hear about these things, and unfortunately deal with them directly from time to time.
 
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