R
Riley259
Guest
I’m very clear and agree with the Catholic Church’s position on contraception including the Pope’s recent condemnation of the use of condoms in Africa as a means of preventing HIV infection. However, I was wondering about the Church’s position on the use of condoms during a specific situation when a rape was about to occur and the woman, although powerless to prevent the rape, pleads with the assailent (who she strongly suspects or knows is carrying the HIV virus) to use a condom and he agrees to do so. Since rape is truly an act of violence and not necessarily about the sex, in an objective sense, would the use of a condom in this situation be considered licit (ex., defending oneself from harm) by the Church’s own standards of moral theology? I’d appreciate some feedback. Thanks.