A
ahs
Guest
I’ve been listening to some John Martignoni CD’s and I started to take down notes and put the apologetics lessons in my own words…so it doesn’t sound “copied” when I share it with others. The one on Baptism and Original Sin was easy…I just wrote down all the Scriptures verses and quoted Scripture directly…with extremely few words in between. But for “Confession” I tried a different approach, and I’d like for anyone who is willing to please read and critique this…find any glaring (or subtle) conflicts with Catholic Doctrine. It’s fairly long (just over 1300 words, not counting the intro where I defend using the OT (cf. 2Tim 3:16, Hb 10:1, Mt 5:16-18).
In Leviticus 5:5-6, we read, “then whoever is guilty in any of these cases shall confess that sin that he has incurred, and as his sin offering for the sin he has committed he shall bring to the Lord a female animal from the flock, a ewe lamb or a she-goat. The priest shall then make atonement for his sin.”
And in Numbers we read, “And the Lord said to Moses, “Say to the people of Israel, When a man or woman commits any of the sins that men commit by breaking faith with the Lord, and that person is guilty, he shall confess his sin which he has committed; and he shall make full restitution for his wrong, adding a fifth to it, and giving it to him to whom he did the wrong. But if the man has no kinsmen to whom restitution may be made for the wrong, the restitution for the wrong shall go for the priest, in addition to the ram of atonement with which atonement is made for him. And every offering, all the holy things of the people of Israel, which they bring to the priest, shall be his; and every man’s holy things shall be his; whatever any man gives to the priest shall be his.”” (Nm 5:5-10)
So, what are we seeing in the OT? We see 1) confession of the sin committed, 2) a form of penance, specifically in these cases a “sin offering” AND “restitution” for the sin and 3) the person is NOT to go straight to God, but through a priest. God set it up so that they were to go through a priest for confessing their sins, and this going through a priest is a foreshadowing of things to come (cf. Hb 10:1, Mt 5:16-18). So, what do we see in the New Testament?
“…and they were baptized by him [John the Baptist] in the river Jordan, confessing their sins” (Mt 3:6). Okay, so it looks like the Jews are still observing the confession of sins to a man…whom they believe is a prophet…a man whom God works through. Let’s look further, in Mt 9:2-8, along with Mk 2:7, which is the same story.
Jesus tells a paralytic to “take heart”, that his “sins are forgiven” (Mt 9:2). But what objection do we hear? “This man is blaspheming” (Mt 9:3, Mk 2:7), “who can forgive sin but God alone?” (Mk2:7). But we know that it is the Scribes that make this objection, and as Christ points out, while it is true that God alone forgives sins, this statement betrays a limited understanding of God’s Power. Jesus shows them the shallowness of their words so, “that you may know the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins” (Mt 9:6). And then what does Scripture tell us? “When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men” (Mt 9:8). It says, “to MEN”, plural…not just to “a Man” (Jesus) but to MEN. But maybe this is just a typographical error in the Scriptures. Let’s look at some other passages in the Scripture to see if it clears this up for us.
I’ll split it into 3 posts:
“Confession to a Priest, or to God Alone?”In Leviticus 5:5-6, we read, “then whoever is guilty in any of these cases shall confess that sin that he has incurred, and as his sin offering for the sin he has committed he shall bring to the Lord a female animal from the flock, a ewe lamb or a she-goat. The priest shall then make atonement for his sin.”
And in Numbers we read, “And the Lord said to Moses, “Say to the people of Israel, When a man or woman commits any of the sins that men commit by breaking faith with the Lord, and that person is guilty, he shall confess his sin which he has committed; and he shall make full restitution for his wrong, adding a fifth to it, and giving it to him to whom he did the wrong. But if the man has no kinsmen to whom restitution may be made for the wrong, the restitution for the wrong shall go for the priest, in addition to the ram of atonement with which atonement is made for him. And every offering, all the holy things of the people of Israel, which they bring to the priest, shall be his; and every man’s holy things shall be his; whatever any man gives to the priest shall be his.”” (Nm 5:5-10)
So, what are we seeing in the OT? We see 1) confession of the sin committed, 2) a form of penance, specifically in these cases a “sin offering” AND “restitution” for the sin and 3) the person is NOT to go straight to God, but through a priest. God set it up so that they were to go through a priest for confessing their sins, and this going through a priest is a foreshadowing of things to come (cf. Hb 10:1, Mt 5:16-18). So, what do we see in the New Testament?
“…and they were baptized by him [John the Baptist] in the river Jordan, confessing their sins” (Mt 3:6). Okay, so it looks like the Jews are still observing the confession of sins to a man…whom they believe is a prophet…a man whom God works through. Let’s look further, in Mt 9:2-8, along with Mk 2:7, which is the same story.
Jesus tells a paralytic to “take heart”, that his “sins are forgiven” (Mt 9:2). But what objection do we hear? “This man is blaspheming” (Mt 9:3, Mk 2:7), “who can forgive sin but God alone?” (Mk2:7). But we know that it is the Scribes that make this objection, and as Christ points out, while it is true that God alone forgives sins, this statement betrays a limited understanding of God’s Power. Jesus shows them the shallowness of their words so, “that you may know the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins” (Mt 9:6). And then what does Scripture tell us? “When the crowds saw it, they were afraid, and glorified God, who had given such authority to men” (Mt 9:8). It says, “to MEN”, plural…not just to “a Man” (Jesus) but to MEN. But maybe this is just a typographical error in the Scriptures. Let’s look at some other passages in the Scripture to see if it clears this up for us.