Confession to a priest is not nessary, prayer is where we confess, any body who dissagrees, read your bible, and incase your to lazy, I have put the scripture and explanation underneth.
Recommended Resource: The Gospel According to Rome: Comparing Catholic Tradition and The Word of God by James McCarthy.
Now, you believe that the OT is fulfilled in the NT, correctā¦
So, in Numbers 21:
6 Then the LORD sent venomous snakes among them; they bit the people and many Israelites died. 7 The people came to Moses and said, āWe sinned when we spoke against the LORD and against you. Pray that the LORD will take the snakes away from us.ā So Moses prayed for the people.
8 The LORD said to Moses, āMake a snake and put it up on a pole; anyone who is bitten can look at it and live.ā 9 So Moses made a bronze snake and put it up on a pole. Then when anyone was bitten by a snake and looked at the bronze snake, they lived.
Why did the Israelites go through Moses to be forgiven by God? Why did they just not go directly to God? In the NT, is this contradicted by Jesus or fulfilled perfectly somehowā¦in the sacrament of confession?
Another passage, this time, Job 42:
[SIGN]7 After the LORD had said these things to Job, he said to Eliphaz the Temanite, āI am angry with you and your two friends, because you have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has. 8 So now take seven bulls and seven rams and go to my servant Job and sacrifice a burnt offering for yourselves. My servant Job will pray for you, and I will accept his prayer and not deal with you according to your folly. You have not spoken the truth about me, as my servant Job has.ā 9 So Eliphaz the Temanite, Bildad the Shuhite and Zophar the Naamathite did what the LORD told them; and the LORD accepted Jobās prayer.
10 After Job had prayed for his friends, the LORD restored his fortunes and gave him twice as much as he had before.[/SIGN]
So, here, God tells Eliphaz to go through Job to be forgiven. Why did God not just forgive Eliphaz and his two other friends directly? The same questionā¦Did Jesus contradict this command from God or fulfilled it, perfected in the NT with the sacrament of confession?
And here is another oneā¦2Sam 12:
[SIGN]13 Then David said to Nathan, āI have sinned against the LORD.ā
Nathan replied, āThe LORD has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for[a] the LORD, the son born to you will die.ā [/SIGN]
Why did God send Nathan to David? You see here, David admitting his sin to Nathan, not to God, and Nathan pronouncing the absolution of Davidās sin. Why did it take Nathan for David to realize his sin?
Another you do not seeā¦this is a forerunner of the sacrament of confession as it has the elements of the sacramentā¦the oral admissin of sin (āI have sinned against the LORD.ā) and the oral absolution (āThe LORD has taken away your sin. You are not going to die.)
So, did Jesus contradict this or fulfilled in the NT with the sacrament of confession?