R
runningdude
Guest
This is an annoyingly technical question here!
I understand all the basics, but would like something specific clarified:
Can a priest, WITH neither faculties nor permission of any sort from his bishop or lawful ordinary (such as a laiticized or excommunicated priest) confer a valid, even if illicit, confirmation in a NON-emergancy situation, where both parties were involved knew of the lack of faculties/permission? Yikes! Good luck unraveling this!
I am trying to better understand the boundaries of the āabilitiesā for a lack of a better of the Holy Orders better. Thanks!
Can a priest, WITH neither faculties nor permission of any sort from his bishop or lawful ordinary (such as a laiticized or excommunicated priest) confer a valid, even if illicit, confirmation in a NON-emergancy situation, where both parties were involved knew of the lack of faculties/permission? Yikes! Good luck unraveling this!
I am trying to better understand the boundaries of the āabilitiesā for a lack of a better of the Holy Orders better. Thanks!