J
JohnSou
Guest
In the September issue of This Rock I found two statements rather confusing, and I was hoping someone could clarify them for me. Under LETTERS on pg. 6 in James Kidd’s retort, he states:
“3. While it is true that the Church does not teach that Christ is physically *present *[emphasis added] in the Eucharist …”
It was my understanding that Jesus is present to us in many forms: “Whenever two or more are gathered in my name” (Matt. 18:20); in Holy Scripture when proclaimed in the Sacred Liturgy; in the form of a validly ordained priest as “persona Christi”; and, par excellence, in the Blessed Sacrament. But in the latter form, the consecrated Eucharist is the true and real Body and Blood and Soul and Divinity of our Lord Jesus Christ under the appearances of bread and wine (i.e., fully the flesh and person of Jesus contained within). Moreover, The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1324) affirms: “… For in the blessed Eucharist is contained the whole spiritual good of the Church, namely Christ himself.” So what is meant by Christ not being *physically *present in the Eucharist? This appears to be contradictory to the above.
Under** Quick Questions** on pg. 45 (in the answer to the third question), it states: “The SSPX Mass, through gravely illicit, is valid …” How could a mass that’s gravely illicit (unlawful) still be “valid” (having legal force) in the context of it being sacramentally valid?
Thanks for your help.
“3. While it is true that the Church does not teach that Christ is physically *present *[emphasis added] in the Eucharist …”
It was my understanding that Jesus is present to us in many forms: “Whenever two or more are gathered in my name” (Matt. 18:20); in Holy Scripture when proclaimed in the Sacred Liturgy; in the form of a validly ordained priest as “persona Christi”; and, par excellence, in the Blessed Sacrament. But in the latter form, the consecrated Eucharist is the true and real Body and Blood and Soul and Divinity of our Lord Jesus Christ under the appearances of bread and wine (i.e., fully the flesh and person of Jesus contained within). Moreover, The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1324) affirms: “… For in the blessed Eucharist is contained the whole spiritual good of the Church, namely Christ himself.” So what is meant by Christ not being *physically *present in the Eucharist? This appears to be contradictory to the above.
Under** Quick Questions** on pg. 45 (in the answer to the third question), it states: “The SSPX Mass, through gravely illicit, is valid …” How could a mass that’s gravely illicit (unlawful) still be “valid” (having legal force) in the context of it being sacramentally valid?
Thanks for your help.