T
tmellin
Guest
I have heard this argument and see its merit:
Sex with contraception removes the procreative potential from the sexual act, making it functionally equivalent to homosexual sex. Thus as contraception becomes the norm, so does the picture of homosexual relationships as equivalent to a heterosexual relationships.
Your thoughts?
Sex with contraception removes the procreative potential from the sexual act, making it functionally equivalent to homosexual sex. Thus as contraception becomes the norm, so does the picture of homosexual relationships as equivalent to a heterosexual relationships.
Your thoughts?