Connection between free will and a known future?

  • Thread starter Thread starter JamesATyler
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Precisely my point…no y, x is not murdered. However, in this scenario, God created Y and X was murdered. Remember too, the OT verse…I knew you, etc., etc…that’s what omniscience is…the knowledge of everything there is to know.

God, under the Christian belief, would no that Y would murder even before he was created because the Christian God is not restricted to linear time, or so I’m told.

Please remember, I don’t believe God, if there is one, has any of these powers. However, I was sure taught he did and that opened a whole keg of worms.
I also make other points. What do you think about the point, if God does not create Y, there is nothing to know about Y. You seem to taking the reverse position, that if God does not create Y, God knows what Y will do because he knows the future. My counter point is, that Y is not a part of the future until God creates Y.

Jeremiah 1:5-7
Now the word of the LORD came to me saying, “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, And before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations.” Then I said, “Alas, Lord GOD! Behold, I do not know how to speak, Because I am a youth.” But the LORD said to me, "Do not say, ‘I am a youth,’ Because everywhere I send you, you shall go, And all that I command you, you shall speak.

He is speaking to Jeremiah not all people. How do I know that Jeremiah is not a special case. Jesus also says he existed before he was man. But is there scriptural foundation to say that all people are known by God before they are formed in the womb?

Anyway, don’t forget my counter point above. Respond to both questions.
 
This doesn’t come close to answering the argument. I did not require omniscience [why you claimed omnipotence, I have no idea] for someone to completely explain the how the machine would function. This sufficient knowledge concerning when the machine would break down and the possible causes makes omniscience largely irrelevant.

What you are failing to establish is a logical connection between certain and sufficient knowledge and causation. The point I was making was that even if certain knowledge were theoretically possible, the level of certainty itself is not sufficient to create a causal connection. Suppose the “knower” accurately predicted for 1000 years precisely the output of the machine, would that mean a causal relationship existed between the knower and the machine, until, inexplicably, the knower erred and because they didn’t anticipate the tiny fast moving teapot, the causal relationship suddenly terminated? I doubt it. The knowledge of the causal relationship and the causal network are two very different entities and a causal relationship simply never existed. Knowledge of, even complete knowledge of, does not establish the causal connection and could very well be inert even when that knowledge is absolute. The burden is still on you to show how knowledge can possibly function causally.

Knowing the complete explanation of something is not the same as “being” the explanation of it.
You are not omniscient. You are just making correct predictions about the machine until a point is reached when your prediction fails. You could fail to make a correct prediction after 1,000 years or after 1 millisecond, it makes no logical difference since you don’t actually know for sure, you are just making predictions.

But omniscience is not merely making predictions which may or may not fail, it is stating that the machine must act as you say because it cannot act otherwise.

You still forgot to respond to my A&E scenario, so here it is again: According to the doctrine, God knows everything, so He knows that A&E disobey. He also knows why they disobey (which could be because He made them imperfect, or is expecting too much when they’re still wet behind the ears, or His instructions aren’t clear enough, or whatever). But He can’t change that they disobey or why they disobey, because that would change His knowledge. So this fatalist god cannot be omnipotent. It’s not clear whether he’s even the real god, since his unchanging knowledge must exist unchanging eternally, so he can’t be its author.
 
You are not omniscient. You are just making correct predictions about the machine until a point is reached when your prediction fails. You could fail to make a correct prediction after 1,000 years or after 1 millisecond, it makes no logical difference since you don’t actually know for sure, you are just making predictions.

But omniscience is not merely making predictions which may or may not fail, it is stating that the machine must act as you say because it cannot act otherwise.
Omniscience doesn’t “state” that at all. You are merely padding your premise in order to assure a conclusion that “it cannot act otherwise.” Both the premise and conclusion are simply a rehash of your fatalism.
You still forgot to respond to my A&E scenario, so here it is again: According to the doctrine, God knows everything, so He knows that A&E disobey. He also knows why they disobey (which could be because He made them imperfect, or is expecting too much when they’re still wet behind the ears, or His instructions aren’t clear enough, or whatever). But He can’t change that they disobey or why they disobey, because that would change His knowledge. So this fatalist god cannot be omnipotent. It’s not clear whether he’s even the real god, since his unchanging knowledge must exist unchanging eternally, so he can’t be its author.
Why they disobeyed could be, you forgot to mention, because they were free to choose one of many options and did so, again freely. You are, again, preloading determinism into God’s knowledge in order to conclude determinism as the cause.

God could simply know what A&E would choose even though they freely chose it.

By your view, A&E were determined by their “state” to act as they did, God knew that and, therefore, his knowledge followed from the predetermined set of events. In that case, it was NOT God’s knowledge that determined the outcome, it was the outcome that was predetermined by the presumed absence of free will rather than because of God’s knowledge.

Basically, you are begging the question because you assume a deterministic scenario as an aspect of God’s knowledge in order to retrospectively conclude determinism. Still a fallacy.
 
I also make other points. What do you think about the point, if God does not create Y, there is nothing to know about Y. You seem to taking the reverse position, that if God does not create Y, God knows what Y will do because he knows the future. My counter point is, that Y is not a part of the future until God creates Y.

Jeremiah 1:5-7
Now the word of the LORD came to me saying, “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, And before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations.” Then I said, “Alas, Lord GOD! Behold, I do not know how to speak, Because I am a youth.” But the LORD said to me, "Do not say, ‘I am a youth,’ Because everywhere I send you, you shall go, And all that I command you, you shall speak.

He is speaking to Jeremiah not all people. How do I know that Jeremiah is not a special case. Jesus also says he existed before he was man. But is there scriptural foundation to say that all people are known by God before they are formed in the womb?

Anyway, don’t forget my counter point above. Respond to both questions.
There is nothing to indicate that Jeremiah was special in this. In fact, if he was, then God is being inconsistent with his supposed creation. According to my Catholic upbringing, during the 1960s, God knows us before, during and after our lives. This was hammered into our heads by the nuns and priests.
If you want to cut such a fine edge and HOPE that Jeremiah was special in this, then there is nothing I can say. BTW, what leads you to believe that God is speaking solely to Jeremiah?
You have answered your own question, you just refuse to accept the answers because they bring up some troubling problems with the Christian God.
 
tonyrey;11511919:
oldcelt;11511739:
Come now, we all know what free will is: the ability to analyze a situation and make a decision based on the facts known to you at the time.
How do we make a decision? What does it mean to “make up our mind”? Which part of the brain flicks the mental switch?
The Joey scenario was to demonstrate that one cannot not have free will about an event that is foreknown by an omnipotent deity and that Joey is complicit because he did nothing to stop it… The Christian version of God does exactly the same thing. In fact, one of these days I’ll start a thread about how that God uses sin to accomplish creation.
You haven’t explained how one person’s knowledge compels another person to act.
My free will comes from my personal will and was not a gift from anyone. In fact, many in my life have tried to deny me free will…they found me to be less than cooperative.
Where did your free will come from? The brain which lacks free will? Or God who lacks free will!
 
There is nothing to indicate that Jeremiah was special in this. In fact, if he was, then God is being inconsistent with his supposed creation. According to my Catholic upbringing, during the 1960s, God knows us before, during and after our lives. This was hammered into our heads by the nuns and priests.
If you want to cut such a fine edge and HOPE that Jeremiah was special in this, then there is nothing I can say. BTW, what leads you to believe that God is speaking solely to Jeremiah?
You have answered your own question, you just refuse to accept the answers because they bring up some troubling problems with the Christian God.
Actually I don’t think it is necessary to refute your understanding of the scripture to refute your understanding of the Christian God in the context of this discussion. I am trying to understand the underpinning of your theological position. You have the scripture and what you say you learned as a youth. These teach you that God knows us before we are created in the womb. I believe that this was a major discovery in your journey toward deism (if there is a God) type religion. You applied your reasoning ability, the results of which is the second major underpinning of your religion. You reasoning is as such when dealing with the Christian context.

God knows the future. God knows a person before he is created in the womb. Therefore God knows a person’s future before he creates them in the womb. God decides to create the person in the womb. Therefore God is responsible for all the Good and all the Evil which is done on the earth, for he decides beforehand what will be allowed.

I believe that the reason this line of reasoning works for you is because of what it means for God to know the future. You believe that when God knows the future then that means it hasn’t happened yet. Not for God and not for anyone. Therefore God knows the future in a way that is purely in his mind’s eye. No real action has yet been performed by the person, nor has God created the person in the womb yet. Therefore God, has foreseen events that have not occurred. This makes him culpable for any evil done when he creates the person in the womb.

Do I understand you correctly?
 
Actually I don’t think it is necessary to refute your understanding of the scripture to refute your understanding of the Christian God in the context of this discussion. I am trying to understand the underpinning of your theological position. You have the scripture and what you say you learned as a youth. These teach you that God knows us before we are created in the womb. I believe that this was a major discovery in your journey toward deism (if there is a God) type religion. You applied your reasoning ability, the results of which is the second major underpinning of your religion. You reasoning is as such when dealing with the Christian context.

God knows the future. God knows a person before he is created in the womb. Therefore God knows a person’s future before he creates them in the womb. God decides to create the person in the womb. Therefore God is responsible for all the Good and all the Evil which is done on the earth, for he decides beforehand what will be allowed.

I believe that the reason this line of reasoning works for you is because of what it means for God to know the future. You believe that when God knows the future then that means it hasn’t happened yet. Not for God and not for anyone. Therefore God knows the future in a way that is purely in his mind’s eye. No real action has yet been performed by the person, nor has God created the person in the womb yet. Therefore God, has foreseen events that have not occurred. This makes him culpable for any evil done when he creates the person in the womb.

Do I understand you correctly?
Since a god with these abilities would have to be outside of time as we understand it. That makes it difficult to say how these things would be viewed, But, omniscience pretty much makes that a moot point.

I think you have a pretty good grasp on my basic beliefs relative to creation by the Christian God. Thanks for taking the effort to be so accurate with a viewpoint you obviously find odious.

John
 
Since a god with these abilities would have to be outside of time as we understand it. That makes it difficult to say how these things would be viewed, But, omniscience pretty much makes that a moot point.

I think you have a pretty good grasp on my basic beliefs relative to creation by the Christian God. Thanks for taking the effort to be so accurate with a viewpoint you obviously find odious.

John
I don’t think I find the viewpoint odious. I see your religious development as a response to the idea that the Christian God has promoted claims about himself which are not true. He promotes the idea that he is all good. However, you believe you have caught him in a lie. He cannot be all good if he foresees and then enables evildoers. Your response was to disbelieve the Christian God’s existence. The idea of a Liar God does not suit you. So you selected a God who holds greater hope for you. One, that for unknown reasons, is unavailable. You reject Gods who lie and do evil. That is what I believe God sees about you.
 
Omniscience doesn’t “state” that at all. You are merely padding your premise in order to assure a conclusion that “it cannot act otherwise.” Both the premise and conclusion are simply a rehash of your fatalism.
There’s a world of difference between making predictions which may fail, and having unlimited knowledge of everything, and that can’t be dismissed with ad hominem, especially such wildly wrong ad hominem. Why on earth do you think I’m a fatalist? :confused:
*Why they disobeyed could be, you forgot to mention, because they were free to choose one of many options and did so, again freely. You are, again, preloading determinism into God’s knowledge in order to conclude determinism as the cause.
God could simply know what A&E would choose even though they freely chose it.
By your view, A&E were determined by their “state” to act as they did, God knew that and, therefore, his knowledge followed from the predetermined set of events. In that case, it was NOT God’s knowledge that determined the outcome, it was the outcome that was predetermined by the presumed absence of free will rather than because of God’s knowledge.
Basically, you are begging the question because you assume a deterministic scenario as an aspect of God’s knowledge in order to retrospectively conclude determinism. Still a fallacy.*
Your statement "it was NOT God’s knowledge that determined the outcome, it was the outcome that was predetermined by the presumed absence of free will " is clearly wrong since any presumption we make now cannot possibly predetermine the outcome.

It seems you missed the point of the scenario, which is that an omniscient god knows they disobey and it cannot be otherwise. The god cannot even avoid creating them since it cannot be otherwise. Omniscience robs the god of free will.

I can’t begin to understand how you decided I’m fatalist when I’m arguing the exact opposite, but ad hominem, what you imagine I do and don’t believe, is an irrelevant fallacy.
 
There’s a world of difference between making predictions which may fail, and having unlimited knowledge of everything, and that can’t be dismissed with ad hominem, especially such wildly wrong ad hominem. Why on earth do you think I’m a fatalist? :confused:
You are a fatalist with regard to the omniscience of God. Your position boils down to: If God is omniscient then free will is impossible.

Your way out of fatalism is to deny that God is omniscient.
Your statement "it was NOT God’s knowledge that determined the outcome, it was the outcome that was predetermined by the presumed absence of free will " is clearly wrong since any presumption we make now cannot possibly predetermine the outcome.
Your argument, basically, is that omniscience and human free will are logically incompatible. You haven’t shown why that is the case, however.

One argument you tried to use simply failed by affirming the consequent:
  1. If man wills, then God knows.
  2. God knows.
    Therefore man wills.
You tried to side step the fallacy by claiming that if God knows that X will occur, X must occur, which is to claim, trivially, that if X actually does occur, then God would know it.

This does not demonstrate that God’s knowledge is incompatible with the freely determined choices of agents.

It is logically possible that God could know with certainty, from a viewpoint in eternity, all the free choices of human agents without that knowledge having any causal influence.

In other words, God, as omniscient and eternal, could know the freely made choices from eternity and those choices “could not have been otherwise” BECAUSE the free agent finally made each choice, not BECAUSE God knows the choice. The determining feature of the choice was NOT God’s knowledge, but the will of the agent, even though God knows the choice from an eternal viewpoint. The reason it “could not have been otherwise” is because the agent chose it to be so, NOT because God knows it to be so.

There is nothing that precludes that possibility.

You are trying to equate the finality of the choice made by the human agent with the knowledge of God, but that is not so. The choice was “final” because the agent made the choice, not because God knows it.

I gave the analogy of the reverse engineered machine where the certain “knowledge” of the engineer with regard to what the machine will do is not the cause of the machine’s action. Even if the engineer had perfect knowledge, that knowledge would not “determine” in any causal way what the machine will do.

If the “omniscient” knowledge of the engineer has NO causal influence even in the case of a “causally determined” entity such as the machine, why would omniscience create causal effects in the case of an autonomous agent with free will? I see no reason to think it would.
It seems you missed the point of the scenario, which is that an omniscient god knows they disobey and it cannot be otherwise. The god cannot even avoid creating them since it cannot be otherwise. Omniscience robs the god of free will.
I think you are missing the point. When you say it “cannot be otherwise” you are not adequately accounting for WHY “it cannot be otherwise.” You are insisting it “cannot be otherwise” because “an omniscient god knows,” but that is not the only recourse. It might be that it “cannot be otherwise” because the free agent made the choice and that choice is what finalized it as the one that “cannot be otherwise” that the omniscient, eternal God knows.
You are misallocating the “finality” of the choice to God’s knowledge instead of to the free agent because the two seem to occur simultaneously.

Your case is bolstered slightly by an appeal to “foreknowledge,” which places God “in time” and not eternity. However, even then, as shown by the reverse engineer example, fore knowing what will happen does not causally influence what will happen. The actions of the machine are simply not affected by the knowledge of the reverse engineer even if that engineer has “omniscient” knowledge regarding what the machine will do. Knowledge is causally inert and does not bring about the actions of the machine.
 
I think you are missing the point. When you say it “cannot be otherwise” you are not adequately accounting for WHY “it cannot be otherwise.” You are insisting it “cannot be otherwise” because “an omniscient god knows,” but that is not the only recourse. It might be that it “cannot be otherwise” because the free agent made the choice and that choice is what finalized it as the one that “cannot be otherwise” that the omniscient, eternal God knows.
You are misallocating the “finality” of the choice to God’s knowledge instead of to the free agent because the two seem to occur simultaneously.

Your case is bolstered slightly by an appeal to “foreknowledge,” which places God “in time” and not eternity. However, even then, as shown by the reverse engineer example, fore knowing what will happen does not causally influence what will happen. The actions of the machine are simply not affected by the knowledge of the reverse engineer even if that engineer has “omniscient” knowledge regarding what the machine will do. Knowledge is causally inert and does not bring about the actions of the machine.
This is similar to the argument that I was making. In his act of creation, god who is outside of time creates. All of existence, every moment is created at the same “moment” With the creation of A&E came the knowledge that they would fail and cast the world into the state of fallen grace. If I create a machine that I know will fail, it’s not the machine’s fault. If I go ahead with it regardless of it’s failure I haven’t set it up to succeed. The failure must be “part of the plan”

To say otherwise, the failure would be a surprise to god. It makes him a poor designer that needs to tinker with the design to keep it running smoothly. It also puts him squarely into the timeline, not outside of time. Or he’s subject to forces greater than himself. Things happen outside his control.
 
This is similar to the argument that I was making. In his act of creation, god who is outside of time creates. All of existence, every moment is created at the same “moment” With the creation of A&E came the knowledge that they would fail and cast the world into the state of fallen grace. If I create a machine that I know will fail, it’s not the machine’s fault. If I go ahead with it regardless of it’s failure I haven’t set it up to succeed. The failure must be “part of the plan”
Here you are concluding more than necessary. Adam and Eve were not “machines,” they were endowed with “free will” so their choices were not “preordained” by their nature, as would be the case with machines. Their choices were theirs and theirs alone, even if these were “known” by God. They weren’t created to fail, they were created and failed, which was known.
To say otherwise, the failure would be a surprise to god. It makes him a poor designer that needs to tinker with the design to keep it running smoothly. It also puts him squarely into the timeline, not outside of time. Or he’s subject to forces greater than himself. Things happen outside his control.
The failure needn’t have been a “surprise” to God for it to have still been a free one on the part of Adam and Eve.

There is an aspect of human beings existing “in the image of God” that is not being accounted for in your “designer” paradigm. Each human person can directly “know” or “come to know” God, which means that unlike machines that are wound up and left to find their way, good or bad, our destiny is “in God.” It is an existentially or ontologically relevant difference.

God is not a disinterested observer in the fate of each human, our destiny is to find our being in God, who is eternal, so, somehow, he is intimately involved in our choices, just as he was in Adam and Eve’s. His stake in our “fate” is infinitely more than our stake, and, perhaps, it is in failing to see that inherency that is where your account falls short. Our choices are eternal choices for God, even if they appear temporal to us. Our existence is a dynamic relationship with God in eternity, not one that is existentially independent.
 
Here you are concluding more than necessary. Adam and Eve were not “machines,” they were endowed with “free will” so their choices were not “preordained” by their nature, as would be the case with machines. Their choices were theirs and theirs alone, even if these were “known” by God. They weren’t created to fail, they were created and failed, which was known.

The failure needn’t have been a “surprise” to God for it to have still been a free one on the part of Adam and Eve.

There is an aspect of human beings existing “in the image of God” that is not being accounted for in your “designer” paradigm. Each human person can directly “know” or “come to know” God, which means that unlike machines that are wound up and left to find their way, good or bad, our destiny is “in God.” It is an existentially or ontologically relevant difference.

God is not a disinterested observer in the fate of each human, our destiny is to find our being in God, who is eternal, so, somehow, he is intimately involved in our choices, just as he was in Adam and Eve’s. His stake in our “fate” is infinitely more than our stake, and, perhaps, it is in failing to see that inherency that is where your account falls short. Our choices are eternal choices for God, even if they appear temporal to us. Our existence is a dynamic relationship with God in eternity, not one that is existentially independent.
If he knew they would fail when he created them and chose to go through with it, he made them to fail. He could have scrapped the whole thing. He didn’t. Their failure wasn’t as offputting as to scrap the whole project. It was acceptable. They may have been held culpable for the act, but the scenioro was set and the players played. Given the only opportunity to disobey they had,they took showed it wasn’t a catastrophic failure but rather part of the plan. We are told we know the end of the story, god prevails. The fall is a plot device.

If his stake is more then ours, we influence god. If he has a stake, he has something to lose. How can god be reduced? It runs contrary to the Christian idea of god, that by our actions we can recudce god in some manner. Humans would have power over god. You can’t mean that.
 
If he knew they would fail when he created them and chose to go through with it, he made them to fail. {snip}
Niether you, nor anyone else who has made this or an equivalent statement, have shown this to be a true statement. Where the logic to support it?
 
Niether you, nor anyone else who has made this or an equivalent statement, have shown this to be a true statement. Where the logic to support it?
The logic is straight forward. If I make something that I know will fail and go through with the production, the failure is acceptable and/or intended or I would fix the problem. If I know of the problem and don’t fix most would call me negligent at best. The options out if it are god didn’t know what was going to happen, or was powerless to change it or didn’t care, or intended it. If we accept he is perfect he must have intended it. Aka “God doesn’t make mistakes”
 
The logic is straight forward. If I make something that I know will fail and go through with the production, the failure is acceptable and/or intended or I would fix the problem. If I know of the problem and don’t fix most would call me negligent at best. The options out if it are god didn’t know what was going to happen, or was powerless to change it or didn’t care, or intended it. If we accept he is perfect he must have intended it. Aka “God doesn’t make mistakes”
Repeating the statement and applying what you would do to God is not logic.
 
That is invalid logic called a non sequiteur. It also ignors humans ability of self determination.
Maybe this formation is more helpful.

If we accept that god is perfect, we say he can’t err. If he creates, he does so without error. His creation is as he intends, without error.

If something isn’t how god intended either he made a mistake OR he is subject to a power that can make things happen that he didn’t intend.
 
Maybe this formation is more helpful.

If we accept that god is perfect, we say he can’t err. If he creates, he does so without error. His creation is as he intends, without error.

If something isn’t how god intended either he made a mistake OR he is subject to a power that can make things happen that he didn’t intend.
You have overlooked the reality of power-sharing which purposefully permits such possibilities…

Human parents do precisely what you prohibit on principle!
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top