C
convert_mother
Guest
My husband wants a persuasive answer to the following question: If the Old Testament is the inspired Word of God, the same God who authored the New Testament, then how can that good God have allowed or even ordered such evils as slavery and the slaughter of races of people (referring to those peoples in the Promised Land to be conquered by the Israelites after 40 years in the desert), etc.? I know the answer at least partly lies in that we must interpret the Old Covenant in light of the New and through Christ, but I don’t know how to answer the specific question.
I do know where the question comes from, however. He is looking for logical consistency. He was raised Catholic, left the Church early in our relationship (I converted to Catholicism later), and is now not a Christian, but rather an agnostic leaning toward materialist. Lately he has been trying to figure out how so many smart people that he knows–including me–can believe everything the Catholic Church teaches, among them that the entire Bible is the inspired Word of God and that God is All Good.
Thanks for any light you can shed on this topic. References to books to read or Catholic Answers tracts, good websites, etc. are most welcome.
I do know where the question comes from, however. He is looking for logical consistency. He was raised Catholic, left the Church early in our relationship (I converted to Catholicism later), and is now not a Christian, but rather an agnostic leaning toward materialist. Lately he has been trying to figure out how so many smart people that he knows–including me–can believe everything the Catholic Church teaches, among them that the entire Bible is the inspired Word of God and that God is All Good.
Thanks for any light you can shed on this topic. References to books to read or Catholic Answers tracts, good websites, etc. are most welcome.