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Dave_Noonan
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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_sexually_active_popesI never knew! Names, please?
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_sexually_active_popesI never knew! Names, please?
Constantine was baptized on his deathbed by an Arian bishop.Wow that’s interesting!
Can you please post some of this evidence?
God bless,
WHOA there, Pardner. Did Constantine summoned the bishops on his own or did he propose to the pope to summon a council? That question has not been definitively answered. But the authority of the pope was well established by the end of the first century and most historians agree that he and Pope Sylvester conferred on the matter and agreed to the council. Constantine was very interested in settling the Arian heresy matter because it was creating civil unrest. Constantine was not so much interested in the theological aspects of it but when the theological debate spilled over into creating problems in the civil administration of the Empire then that was his backyard. Constantine did oissue letters to the bishops in which he practically begged them to meet in council. Constantine provided all the material support for the council. It met in Nicea using the central hall of the imperial palace as a meeting place. He even paid for the travel expenses of the participants and provided for their lodging, upkeep and food. He made a grand entrance befitting his office as emperor at the beginning of the council but then let the bishops do their work. Constantine was, in my opinion, the ultimate politician and would run rings around out current crop of candidates for political office.It is true in a sense, but now it depends how much exaggeration one side will take it or how they would interpret it to mean.
Constantine the Great (thus the alias I have) started a line of Holy Roman Emperors where secular rulers worked hand in hand with the Church. Think “New Testament King David”. They have the power to summon bishops to a council because they are the secular ruler. Because of the ecclesiology of the First Millennium, no one bishop had the authority to summon all the bishops of the empire. The emperor, being a temporal ruler, had that authority. It helped stem the issue whether one bishop had authority to summon another, especially if these were two Metropolitans. Patriarchates were just beginning to come into order at this time.
The Emperor has the perogative to choose who can become bishop, but the Church was not beholden to it. Usually it is part of the politics between Church and state. But the emperor surely did not choose bishops for the entire empire, nor is his choice final. The other bishops can surely refuse, but then they have to face the possible strain in relationship.
Remember when there were 3 claimants to the Papacy in Rome, the Emperor helped sort that out.
Not quite the same. Constantine was the sole ruler of the empire and the council only included those in the empire while the Chinese are not anywhere near to being a ruler of an empire. Secondly given the problems with state appointed bishops in China I would doubt the Church would agree to any council proposed by the communists.I think a parallel today might be if the Chinese communists called a Christian Council.
I’m sure the Catholic Church would work with that power without being subordinate to it.
We also have to remember that is was Constantine that moved the capital from Rome to Anatolia with all his army and governmental structure while the head of the Church stayed in Rome.
Also we have to remember that Constantine’s son, when he became ruler went back to persecuting the Church.
None of this could have happened if the church was the creation of the Roman state.
Despite 250 years of pesucution Christains made up between a third and a half of the empire and growing.WHOA there, Pardner. Did Constantine summoned the bishops on his own or did he propose to the pope to summon a council? That question has not been definitively answered. But the authority of the pope was well established by the end of the first century and most historians agree that he and Pope Sylvester conferred on the matter and agreed to the council. Constantine was very interested in settling the Arian heresy matter because it was creating civil unrest. Constantine was not so much interested in the theological aspects of it but when the theological debate spilled over into creating problems in the civil administration of the Empire then that was his backyard. Constantine did oissue letters to the bishops in which he practically begged them to meet in council. Constantine provided all the material support for the council. It met in Nicea using the central hall of the imperial palace as a meeting place. He even paid for the travel expenses of the participants and provided for their lodging, upkeep and food. He made a grand entrance befitting his office as emperor at the beginning of the council but then let the bishops do their work. Constantine was, in my opinion, the ultimate politician and would run rings around out current crop of candidates for political office.
What you wrote about Constantine goes to my assertion that he was the ultimate political figure not only of his time but I can’t think of anyone to compare with him. Julius Caesar was more of a militarist than a politician and none of the other Roman emperors came close.hello Inkaneer,
It is true that Constantine was the last man standing (of four Roman Emperors) and became the sole emperor after internal civil war. It is also true that although he was from the Serbian region his original 1/4 of the empire was based in the west where relatively few of his citizens were Christian (about 20%).
Christians weren’t persecuted in his realm because they were such a low percentage. In the eastern realms, the Christian population was nearing 50%.
When Constantine became sole emperor it made political sense to stop the persecutions in his new Eastern realm. In doing so he had ready made support from a large section of the population there (i.e. Christians).
As such Constantine was in no position to dictate to the Christians, he needed them politically.
Also, the Christians are hardly going to go through persecution and then turn over and do what they are told once they have been legalised and become a political force.
I agree the parallel with China is not entirely congruous, as you suggest. I mentioned it with regards to the Christian Papacy taking its opportunity to reconcile with an aggressive and powerful enemy. China has been both of those and i think the Papacy would jump at the chance at reconciliation.
Reconciliation of course from a Catholic view cannot mean capitulation but assistance.
Regards.
No, obviously in Scripture it is pretty clear he had a mother-in-law. There is debate whether his wife was living at the time he was called by Christ. Some traditions point out that his wife was martyred alongside him in Rome.If this is the fact, was St.Peter celibate?![]()
The concept of infallability did not exist then. Certainly there was nothing pronounced ex cathedra until much later in the Second Millennium. But that is for another debate.Seems that the idea that the Pope in Rome had a primacy was a little in doubt. How does this help with an alleged “2000 year” tradition that I’ve heard from some RC apologists (not to mention what Vatican I had to say about the pope)? Did anyone at the Council of Nicea think the Pope in Rome was infallible in any way (ex cathedra or otherwise)? This explanation (the entirety of your response, not just the snippet I’ve quoted) seems to make it clear that such was not the case.
BTW - Isn’t the Council of Nicea considered the 1st ecumenical council? Strange that this would be called by a secular ruler (“Holy” or otherwise) instead of the pope).
I hate how they renamed the list from “List of married Popes” to “List of sexually active Popes” on Wikipedia, but the list nevertheless is a good source to begin with.I never knew! Names, please?
No, the Pope could not have called the council. When the Emperors start becoming religious (to some extent), they started getting involved in Church matters. While they never settled or defined anything by themselves, sometimes even their own curiosity would lead them to summon a council to settle matters.WHOA there, Pardner. Did Constantine summoned the bishops on his own or did he propose to the pope to summon a council? That question has not been definitively answered. But the authority of the pope was well established by the end of the first century and most historians agree that he and Pope Sylvester conferred on the matter and agreed to the council. Constantine was very interested in settling the Arian heresy matter because it was creating civil unrest. Constantine was not so much interested in the theological aspects of it but when the theological debate spilled over into creating problems in the civil administration of the Empire then that was his backyard. Constantine did oissue letters to the bishops in which he practically begged them to meet in council. Constantine provided all the material support for the council. It met in Nicea using the central hall of the imperial palace as a meeting place. He even paid for the travel expenses of the participants and provided for their lodging, upkeep and food. He made a grand entrance befitting his office as emperor at the beginning of the council but then let the bishops do their work. Constantine was, in my opinion, the ultimate politician and would run rings around out current crop of candidates for political office.
It is not a good comparison. There is no one world leader that encompasses over all Christian Churches (say we want a council with all Apostolic Churches including the Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox and Assyrian Church of the East). No one leader can do that. Back then the Churches all existed within the Roman Empire and thus heeded the Emperor’s call.I think a parallel today might be if the Chinese communists called a Christian Council.
I’m sure the Catholic Church would work with that power without being subordinate to it.
We also have to remember that is was Constantine that moved the capital from Rome to Anatolia with all his army and governmental structure while the head of the Church stayed in Rome.
Also we have to remember that Constantine’s son, when he became ruler went back to persecuting the Church.
None of this could have happened if the church was the creation of the Roman state.
There were many Christians outside the Roman Empire at the time–some scholars think even perhaps the majority of Christians lived outside of the purview of Rome by the fourth century.Back then the Churches all existed within the Roman Empire and thus heeded the Emperor’s call.
OK, so what about papal primacy? The documents of Vatican I (Chapter 1 On the institution of the apostolic primacy in blessed Peter, paragraph 4) clearly states, “as it has always been understood by the Catholic Church” (this is in reference to the primacy of Peter and his successors), which certainly seems to indicate that this primacy should have been recognized within the Church (at the very least)… I realize that just giving a snippet like this doesn’t do justice to the context. I pulled this from the Faith Database (CA may have it available in the store, as it is a Catholic program), but you should be able to find the Council documents in a variety of locations.The concept of infallability did not exist then. Certainly there was nothing pronounced ex cathedra until much later in the Second Millennium.
I disagree, the role of the pope as universal bishop was certainly understood much earlier than 325 AD. Look at the writings of Ignatius and Irenaeus in the early and mid second century. Cyprian of Carthage in the third century [251AD]No, obviously in Scripture it is pretty clear he had a mother-in-law. There is debate whether his wife was living at the time he was called by Christ. Some traditions point out that his wife was martyred alongside him in Rome.
The concept of infallability did not exist then. Certainly there was nothing pronounced ex cathedra until much later in the Second Millennium. But that is for another debate.
Ecumenical Councils aren’t called to be Ecumenical Councils. Nobody says something like, “hey guys, let’s have an Ecumenical Council.” The bishosp have a council and discuss important issues. And later on the character of the council determines if it becomes Ecumenical or not. It would be years before they would look back on a council and say it was Ecumenical. The role of the Emperor here is just to assemble the bishops. Obviously even back then the issue of whether a bishop has the right to summon another bishop has already been a hot topic. Metropolitans can summon their suffragan bishops, but that was it. What about one Metropolitan to another? The only temporal authority over all the bishops is the secular one, that is the Emperor. That is why the Emperor is the one that calls for councils that involve most, if not all, the bishops of the world (that is, the Roman Empire).
Well, apparently you have access to information that historians do not. Please share with us your source for this information and please don’t say Wikipedia!No, the Pope could not have called the council. When the Emperors start becoming religious (to some extent), they started getting involved in Church matters. While they never settled or defined anything by themselves, sometimes even their own curiosity would lead them to summon a council to settle matters.
There have been instances where bishops are the ones who approached the emperor and asked him to call a council. There were times the Emperor himself decided to call a council to settle an important matter (probably the bishops involved him in some way). But in any case, the Emperor does not decide on the issue. The temporal authority of the Emperor sees to it that the bishops are summoned to the council. Once they get there, the Emperor’s role ceases.
Indeed, the Apostle Thomas evangelized India. This wasn’t known until the fourteenth century when the Portugese ‘discovered’ India and found all these christians there.There were many Christians outside the Roman Empire at the time–some scholars think even perhaps the majority of Christians lived outside of the purview of Rome by the fourth century.
Not at all. the primacy has to do with orthodoxy of leadership in the Church and the purity of doctrine. It is not at all related to temporal power and authority. As a matter of fact, the first 7 bishops of Rome were martyrd before the NT had even been finished being written. The Church in Rome, just like all the other patriarchies, was an underground church with the secular powers attempting to annhiliate it.Code:Seems that the idea that the Pope in Rome had a primacy was a little in doubt.
I guess I don’t understand the question. Did you think that primacy meant temporal/secular authority?How does this help with an alleged “2000 year” tradition that I’ve heard from some RC apologists (not to mention what Vatican I had to say about the pope)?
Not in the sense that we understand it today. The early Christians took Jesus words to heart, and believed that the Church was preserved from error by the power of the HS. The Apostles taught their disciples to identify the Church as those surrounding the validly ordained bishop. The bishops in communion with one another made decisions along with the HS, just as is described at the council of Jerusalem in Acts. Since the HS is infallible, decisions made in this manner could be relied upon as valid.Did anyone at the Council of Nicea think the Pope in Rome was infallible in any way (ex cathedra or otherwise)?
Actually, not strange at all. There had been a number of regional councils before this, but since it was very dangerous for Christians to travel in an empire that wanted to assasinate them, it was not prudent for any to gather in one place because they might all be made the target of a slaughter. It would be especially dangerous for Bishops to do so, since it was one of the favorite ways of Rome to cut off movements by dispensing of their heads. If you recall, this was the method used in Palestine see Acts 5:39 with Theudas, then John the Baptist, Jesus and so on. The Roman policy was to dispatch the leaders so the movement would die out.BTW - Isn’t the Council of Nicea considered the 1st ecumenical council? Strange that this would be called by a secular ruler (“Holy” or otherwise) instead of the pope).
Indeed it was. It is obvious from the Gospel accounts, since he is always listed at the top of the Apostolic college.OK, so what about papal primacy? The documents of Vatican I (Chapter 1 On the institution of the apostolic primacy in blessed Peter, paragraph 4) clearly states, “as it has always been understood by the Catholic Church” (this is in reference to the primacy of Peter and his successors), which certainly seems to indicate that this primacy should have been recognized within the Church (at the very least)… I realize that just giving a snippet like this doesn’t do justice to the context. I pulled this from the Faith Database (CA may have it available in the store, as it is a Catholic program), but you should be able to find the Council documents in a variety of locations.
I think the explanation is that you are expecting to insert your modern view into history. In the early church, the role of the successor of Peter was still in the form of a seed, and a small plant. By Vat. 1 it had become a full grown tree. The fact that it looks different does not mean that it is not the same plant.Just to clarify, when I compare what you said with what was said at Vatican I, there seems to be some inconsitency. (BTW - according to what I found in the Faith Database on Vatican I, it was meant as an Ecumenical Council before it was ever convened.) Seems to me that either you’re wrong, Vatican I is wrong, or there is another explanation that I’m not getting.