Consummation

[suissemissed]

If a couple mutually plans to never consummate their marriage, would this make the marriage invalid from the beginning? And if so, what if they make this mutual decision after they are validly married? (i.e., had the intention of consummating when they took their vows)

I’m thinking the answer is no, because Mary and Joseph were validly married, and yet never consummated their marriage. I think the only thing that matters is the ability to engage in the “marriage act”, right? Impotence is an impediment, but not intentional abstinence, correct?

 

[Seatuck]

If a couple mutually plans to never consummate their marriage, would this make the marriage invalid from the beginning? And if so, what if they make this mutual decision after they are validly married? (i.e., had the intention of consummating when they took their vows)

I’m thinking the answer is no, because Mary and Joseph were validly married, and yet never consummated their marriage. I think the only thing that matters is the ability to engage in the “marriage act”, right? Impotence is an impediment, but not intentional abstinence, correct?

This couple would not be open to children so that might invalidate it.Hard to imagine they planned a normal marriage then they exchanged vows and a couple hours later came to this conclusion. Otherwise it could be valid but not ratified if undertaken under certain conditions. There has never been or ever will be again a marriage that comes close to comparing to the Holy Mother and Joseph’s marriage so there is no point in attempting to do so. We do have the rare occurrences of “josephite” marriages in the church. These are to be undertaken with spiritual direction and discernment. There are spiritual reasons for these marriages. Even if such a marriage is undertaken if one of the spouses changes their minds the other spouse is obligated to render the marital debt.Providing the marital debt is a requirement of marriage under normal circumstances and is one of the “goods” of marriage.

 

[StJudePray4Me]

I thought that you had to get “permission” {so to speak} for a Josephite marriage.

 

[Seatuck]

I thought that you had to get “permission” {so to speak} for a Josephite marriage.

Yes.

 

[1ke]

If a couple mutually plans to never consummate their marriage, would this make the marriage invalid from the beginning? And if so, what if they make this mutual decision after they are validly married? (i.e., had the intention of consummating when they took their vows)

I’m thinking the answer is no, because Mary and Joseph were validly married, and yet never consummated their marriage. I think the only thing that matters is the ability to engage in the “marriage act”, right? Impotence is an impediment, but not intentional abstinence, correct?

An unconsummated marriage is valid, but dissolvable by the pope.

A couple that plan to have a Josephite marriage must have permission to do so. When they marry, they agree to the exchange of the right to intercourse. So, if at any point in the marriage one or the other party wishes to cease the Josephite marriage and begin conjugal relations, the other party must be prepared to do so.

You are corrrect, impotence is an impediment. The ability to have intercourse must be present. They can choose to be continent for a time or permanently. But, again, if either party wants to take up all the duties of marriage, the other must do so.

 

[1ke]

Also, Mary and Joseph’s marriage do not enter into the equation regarding the Church’s teachings on marriage, validity, consummation, etc.

They were married under Jewish law. They had a valid natural marriage. Jesus had not yet instituted the Sacraments. The Church did not yet exist.

Their marriage was also unique in all of history in that Mary is the Mother of God and Joseph’s role was to be their legal protector.

 

[clpage86]

What exactly does it mean to be impotent? Does it mean that one person cannot physically engage in sexual intercourse? Is that like E.D.?

Does this mean that if one person cannot have sex then he/she cannot actually be sacramentally married to the other person?

 

[joandarc2008]

What exactly does it mean to be impotent? Does it mean that one person cannot physically engage in sexual intercourse? Is that like E.D.?

Does this mean that if one person cannot have sex then he/she cannot actually be sacramentally married to the other person?

Without getting too graphic because we do have some teenagers on here due to the summer months it means unable to engage in the sexual act. I think it would be more prudent to go to other sources for more information than this. Is anybody else on this thread disagreeable as we have had some on the threads as young as 13?