Contraception and abortifacient

[twf]

It is my understanding that a Catholic spouse does not sin by having relations with a contracepting spouse if a) the Catholic spouse has explained his or her objection to contraception b) the Catholic spouse does not directly participate in contraceptive action and c) the contraceptive method used is not an abortifacient.
What methods of contraception would satisfy these requirements? Its my understanding that most Catholics / Christians have concluded that common forms of the pill, IUDs, etc. are all potentially abortifacients.

 

[1ke]

c) the contraceptive method used is not an abortifacient.

No, the Church does not actually teach this last part. In the Vademecum for Confessors (which is not a doctrinal document, but a pastoral document for confessors) it states (reiterating teaching found in Casti Connubii):

This cooperation can be licit when the three following conditions are jointly met:

1. 
   *]when the action of the cooperating spouse is not already illicit in itself;
   *]when proportionally grave reasons exist for cooperating in the sin of the other spouse;
   *]when one is seeking to help the other spouse to desist from such conduct (patiently, with prayer, charity and dialogue; although not necessarily in that moment, nor on every single occasion).
   
   It goes on to say (referencing Evangelum Vitae):
   
   Furthermore, it is necessary to carefully evaluate the question of cooperation in evil when recourse is made to means which can have an abortifacient effect.
   
   So, the innocent spouse would have to evaluate the specifics of the situation, and I would suggest doing so under the direction of a competent spiritual director or their confessor.
   
   IUDs, hormonal pills/patch/ring/shot etc., may act in abortifacient ways but they may also act primarily to prevent ovulation (depending on specific forumlations) so it is not possible to say any specific act of intercourse is resulting in lack of implantation. And certainly I would think in most cases it is not the intention of the couple to cause a child to be aborted.

 

[Convert_in_99]

No, the Church does not actually teach this last part. In the Vademecum for Confessors (which is not a doctrinal document, but a pastoral document for confessors) it states (reiterating teaching found in Casti Connubii):

This cooperation can be licit when the three following conditions are jointly met:

1. 
   *]when the action of the cooperating spouse is not already illicit in itself;
   *]when proportionally grave reasons exist for cooperating in the sin of the other spouse;
   *]when one is seeking to help the other spouse to desist from such conduct (patiently, with prayer, charity and dialogue; although not necessarily in that moment, nor on every single occasion).
   
   It goes on to say (referencing Evangelum Vitae):
   
   Furthermore, it is necessary to carefully evaluate the question of cooperation in evil when recourse is made to means which can have an abortifacient effect.
   
   So, the innocent spouse would have to evaluate the specifics of the situation, and I would suggest doing so under the direction of a competent spiritual director or their confessor.
   
   IUDs, hormonal pills/patch/ring/shot etc., may act in abortifacient ways but they may also act primarily to prevent ovulation (depending on specific forumlations) so it is not possible to say any specific act of intercourse is resulting in lack of implantation. And certainly I would think in most cases it is not the intention of the couple to cause a child to be aborted.

1. 
   This is a great post 1ke. I agree. It has a lot to do with the intent of the person.