I want to make sure that you understand the difference between an abortion and a miscarriage. The death of a child, even if caused by human intervention, is only an abortion if the death of the child was intended, otherwise, it is a miscarriage. Since you have already made it clear that your wife is very pro-life and would never consent to an abortion or even consider it, it would be impossible for these contracpetives to cause her to have an abortion. They may cause her to have a miscarriage, which is still a terrible thing, but it is not the same as an abortion at all.
The mixed signals/confusion that the OP alludes to can be understood if we consider how much effort the Church in America put forward to oppose the Obama Administration’s HHS Mandate, not only because it mandates health insurance coverage of contraceptives but also because, among those contraceptives are “abortion-inducing drugs” (and let’s not presume that all women who use the Pill or disagree with the Church’s teaching on contraception, intend an abortion … many of them don’t know that there is a possibility, however remote, that the Pill can prevent the implantation of a newly conceived life).
So the Church (as well as Protestant organizations) made sure to emphasize the capably-abortive function of hormonal contraceptives …
for the purpose of sparing themselves from having to materially cooperate with the distribution of these drugs and devices to employers, yet the OP is being told that it is permissible to materially cooperate with his spouse’s use of contraception even if it is foreseeable that, should she conceive, she might lose their baby over it! Doesn’t it at least
seem inconsistent?
I suppose one could argue that the former (proliferation of contraceptives) is more serious than the latter (cooperation with a contracepting spouse), since the latter depends ultimately on agents who make contraception accessible in the first place (afterall Jesus said to Pilate that he who delivered Him up to Pilate had the greater sin), yet the point remains that the Catholic entitites wanted to have nothing to do with servicing contraception, but a spouse is told he can have something to do with it, so long as it’s indirect!
I am NOT recommending that the OP use contraception himself (correct: the ends doesn’t justify the means). I am simply dilineating the reason why I can understand his frustration toward the advice he has been given regarding the Pill.
To the OP: have you and your wife discussed the difference between “perfect use” efficacy rates of of NFP, and “typical use” (also called “actual use”) efficacy rates?
Perfect use tells you the efficacy of the
method-itself (measured by correct and consistent use).
Typical use tells you the efficacy of the method as *practiced *(which of course includes the failures rates of those who use the method incorrectly and/or inconsistently).
Is she also aware that by NFP, we don’t mean the calendar rythym method, but rather fertility-symptom awareness methods?