Contraception question

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BruceK

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This may be a bit of a loaded question but I have been getting varying answers from different people, even from priests and lay apologists. The question is did God in His act of creation separate the two purposes or ends of conjugal intercourse?
 
If artificial contraception is morally disordered because it separates the unitive and the procreative, then are you asking if God is morally disordered?

If God is morally disordered then I don’t believe in Him any more.
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This may be a bit of a loaded question but I have been getting varying answers from different people, even from priests and lay apologists. The question is did God in His act of creation separate the two purposes or ends of conjugal intercourse?
Huh?
 
This may be a bit of a loaded question but I have been getting varying answers from different people, even from priests and lay apologists. The question is did God in His act of creation separate the two purposes or ends of conjugal intercourse?
I should think the only one who really separates the two purposes or ends of intercourse (and isn’t it only MEANT ever to be conjugal anyway? Kinda redundant then to say ‘conjugal intercourse’) is us when we misuse His gift of sexuality.
 
This may be a bit of a loaded question but I have been getting varying answers from different people, even from priests and lay apologists. The question is did God in His act of creation separate the two purposes or ends of conjugal intercourse?
The unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality didn’t exist to be separated until after creation was completed. Thus, God creating Adam and then dividing him into Adam and Eve occurred BEFORE the institution of human sexuality.

You can’t outsmart God! 😉
 
If artificial contraception is morally disordered because it separates the unitive and the procreative, then are you asking if God is morally disordered?

If God is morally disordered then I don’t believe in Him any more.
http://www.websmileys.com/sm/evil/220.gif
Heck no, not me. I definitely don’t think God is morally disorderd but I was a bit st when I posed that question a while back by someone else. Maybe that person believes that artificial contraception is not morally disordered; I obviously don’t agree with that.
 
This may be a bit of a loaded question but I have been getting varying answers from different people, even from priests and lay apologists. The question is did God in His act of creation separate the two purposes or ends of conjugal intercourse?
God didn’t use intercourse in His act of creation… so I’m not sure how he could separate the two purposes of it in His act of Creation if intercourse never took place.
That’s exactly what I said when the question was 1st posed to me.:confused:
Whoever asked you this is the confused one. :rolleyes:
 
The unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality didn’t exist to be separated until after creation was completed. Thus, God creating Adam and then dividing him into Adam and Eve occurred BEFORE the institution of human sexuality.

You can’t outsmart God! 😉
Apparently the one who asked this question probably thinks he can outsmart God.
 
God didn’t use intercourse in His act of creation… so I’m not sure how he could separate the two purposes of it in His act of Creation if intercourse never took place.

I mean when God created Adam and Eve did he separate the two ends of conjugal intercourse?
 
What is it about the question that doesn’t make sense to you?
How does the creation of Adam and Eve have anything to do with conjugal intercourse, let alone the separating the two elements?
 
I mean when God created Adam and Eve did he separate the two ends of conjugal intercourse?
No, because God did not USE conjugal intercourse in the creation of Adam and Eve.
How does the creation of Adam and Eve have anything to do with conjugal intercourse, let alone the separating the two elements?
Agreed… God didn’t USE conjugal intercourse in his creation of Adam and Eve…
The two elements of conjugal intercourse (unitive and procreative) are only necessary if conjugal intercourse takes place.
GOD created Adam and Eve… they were not created by conjugal intercourse… so the two elements were never separated.
 
Let me phrase the OP’s original question better.

The Catholic Church argues that in vitro fertilization is immoral because (among other things) it violates the right of the child to be the result of the loving embrace of his father and mother. Doesn’t this argument imply that God sinned when he created Adam and Eve??

See my previous post for the answer!
 
The unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality didn’t exist to be separated until after creation was completed. Thus, God creating Adam and then dividing him into Adam and Eve occurred BEFORE the institution of human sexuality.

You can’t outsmart God! 😉
So as to be sure I got this straight, the unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality must go hand-in-hand, so as to try to separate the two is to go agaisnt the will of God, or trying “outsmart” him. Right? ]
 
I was recently posed with question and I admit I was a bit stumped, did God in his act of creation seaparate the two purposes or ends(uniative and procreative) of conjugal intercourse? I thought the two must go hand-in-hand; so who’s right? :confused:
 
manualman;3020024:
The unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality didn’t exist to be separated until after creation was completed. Thus, God creating Adam and then dividing him into Adam and Eve occurred BEFORE the institution of human sexuality.

You can’t outsmart God! 😉
So as to be sure I got this straight, the unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality must go hand-in-hand, so as to try to separate the two is to go agaisnt the will of God, or trying “outsmart” him. Right?
Yes, the unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality (between human beings) must go hand-in-hand, and to try to separate the two is against the will of God.

But your question still doesn’t make any sense.

God, Himself, did not create Adam and Eve using the act of human sexuality.
God CREATED the laws regarding human sexuality…
He did not engage in human sexuality in order to create Adam and Eve… so the unitive and procreative aspects were never separated.
 
Yes, the unitive and procreative aspects of sexuality (between human beings) must go hand-in-hand, and to try to separate the two is against the will of God.

But your question still doesn’t make any sense.

God, Himself, did not create Adam and Eve using the act of human sexuality.
God CREATED the laws regarding human sexuality…
He did not engage in human sexuality in order to create Adam and Eve… so the unitive and procreative aspects were never separated.

The laws were regarding human sexuality… you can’t break those laws if you didn’t engage in human sexuality. :confused:
 
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