A
adrian1
Guest
Hosea 1:2 and 1 Corintians 6:16,18
Last edited:
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
- Status
- Not open for further replies.
P
patrick457
Guest
I don’t see a contradiction here.
God ordered Hosea to marry an adulteress as a sign to the people (you might say a kind of ‘performance art’ for lack of a better term): Hosea’s adulterous wife Gomer is just like Israel, who was unfaithful to God. In other words, it’s a divine command, which is not what St. Paul is addressing in 1 Corinthians.
God ordered Hosea to marry an adulteress as a sign to the people (you might say a kind of ‘performance art’ for lack of a better term): Hosea’s adulterous wife Gomer is just like Israel, who was unfaithful to God. In other words, it’s a divine command, which is not what St. Paul is addressing in 1 Corinthians.
A
adrian1
Guest
You don’t see, this not means that isn’t a contradiction…
V
Vico
Guest
That means: “I think there is no contradiction.”I don’t see a contradiction here
C
CRM_Brother
Guest
The action in Hosea 1:2 is called a sign act. These were actions which were commanded by God of the prophets which sometimes went against the Law. The prophets actions were not meant to be signs of behavior to follow but rather a visible sign to the people of Israel of their own sins. Another example of this is Ezekiel being commanded by God to eat feces in Ezekiel 4:12.
Paul is directly addressing something completely different in 1 Corinthians. He is speaking towards the gravity of sexual immorality and being wary of its infiltration into the Christian community. The footnote in the NAB
on the USCCB website specifically says that this passage may be directed towards religious prostitution, a common practice of the time in Corinth in which the people sleep with people who are not their spouse during the rites of pagan gods.
Paul is directly addressing something completely different in 1 Corinthians. He is speaking towards the gravity of sexual immorality and being wary of its infiltration into the Christian community. The footnote in the NAB
on the USCCB website specifically says that this passage may be directed towards religious prostitution, a common practice of the time in Corinth in which the people sleep with people who are not their spouse during the rites of pagan gods.
Last edited:
R
RedFan
Guest
While either possibility would solve your difficulty, let’s assume that the opening verses of Hosea are not allegorical (as Calvin thought) or descriptive of a dream or vision (as Maimonides thought).
What does the text say? That Hosea is to marry a prostitute, who will nevertheless bear illegitimate children (i.e., cheat on Hosea, as Israel has cheated on God). By marrying her, Hosea is doing nothing that Paul would later condemn the Corinthians for doing.
What does the text say? That Hosea is to marry a prostitute, who will nevertheless bear illegitimate children (i.e., cheat on Hosea, as Israel has cheated on God). By marrying her, Hosea is doing nothing that Paul would later condemn the Corinthians for doing.
Last edited:
- Status
- Not open for further replies.