B
bamaster47
Guest
Okay so, let’s say that a person who is baptized Protestant marries a Catholic in a Catholic ceremony, and the two of them agree to raise their children in the Catholic Church. They attend Mass together every weekend, and the Protestant spouse never attends a Protestant service again, only attending Catholic Mass with the family. However, the Protestant spouse also receives the sacrament of the Eucharist weekly, without having gone through formal conversion to the Church.
Is it possible that, by having lived in the church for years after getting married, and having received the Eucharist, the Protestant spouse might have been de facto converted “by default?” Or is there still the necessity to convert formally in order to fully receive the benefits of the Eucharist and other Catholic Sacraments?
Is it possible that, by having lived in the church for years after getting married, and having received the Eucharist, the Protestant spouse might have been de facto converted “by default?” Or is there still the necessity to convert formally in order to fully receive the benefits of the Eucharist and other Catholic Sacraments?