J
Jerusalem
Guest
Hello Forum:
Recently someone told me that we don’t have the original
copies of Mth, Mk, Lk, or Jn. As such, we have copies of
various codices or rather copies of copies. Does anyone know
whether there is a general uniformity or exact replecation of the various copies or do they differ slightly? Secondly, Doesn’t a miscopy of the original word distort inerrancy for that particular word ? I believe the bible is inerrant but not all the copyists could have gotten it right. Third, Do we have copies of the original gospels in the language they were written?
Ad Majorem Dei Gloriam
Jeff
Recently someone told me that we don’t have the original
copies of Mth, Mk, Lk, or Jn. As such, we have copies of
various codices or rather copies of copies. Does anyone know
whether there is a general uniformity or exact replecation of the various copies or do they differ slightly? Secondly, Doesn’t a miscopy of the original word distort inerrancy for that particular word ? I believe the bible is inerrant but not all the copyists could have gotten it right. Third, Do we have copies of the original gospels in the language they were written?
Ad Majorem Dei Gloriam
Jeff