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When skimming through this court decision, yet again trying to understand the logic behind killing children (i continously fail at this), law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0410_0113_ZO.html
i found this claim about catholic dogma:
“The Aristotelian theory of “mediate animation,” that held sway throughout the Middle Ages and the Renaissance in Europe, continued to be official Roman Catholic dogma until the 19th century, despite opposition to this “ensoulment” theory from those in the Church who would recognize the existence of life from [p161] the moment of conception.”
(section IX, 8th paragraph)
As far as i understood it, it was (and is) catholic dogma that human life begins at ensoulment and abortion from that moment on is violation of 5th commandment, but when this happens dogma does not specify or at least didnt until recently.
Yet this court decision claims that catholic dogma officially adopted some aristotelian theory.
Anybody can supporting or falsifying this claim?
i found this claim about catholic dogma:
“The Aristotelian theory of “mediate animation,” that held sway throughout the Middle Ages and the Renaissance in Europe, continued to be official Roman Catholic dogma until the 19th century, despite opposition to this “ensoulment” theory from those in the Church who would recognize the existence of life from [p161] the moment of conception.”
(section IX, 8th paragraph)
As far as i understood it, it was (and is) catholic dogma that human life begins at ensoulment and abortion from that moment on is violation of 5th commandment, but when this happens dogma does not specify or at least didnt until recently.
Yet this court decision claims that catholic dogma officially adopted some aristotelian theory.
Anybody can supporting or falsifying this claim?